How did the translators of the LXX out of the Hebrew text of Job 39:20 decide to use the word "breast" where the Hebrew text (Stuttgarsenia) has the Hebrew word "snort" (Brown Driver Briggs 637b)?

  • 1
    Welcome to BH. Please take a moment to take the Tour and see the Help (below) to see how the the site works. As it stands, you are actually asking a matter of opinion 'How did (they) decide ?' which only 'they' could divulge. I suggest you edit the question so that you are asking for a factual answer rather than an unproveable opinion of an historic decision.
    – Nigel J
    Apr 24, 2020 at 17:57
  • This is, perhaps, another example where the text of the LXX and BHS differ - there are numerous such examples - some involving numerous added verses etc.
    – Dottard
    Apr 24, 2020 at 22:03

1 Answer 1



enter image description here


enter image description here

As explained in Style and Context of Old Greek Job

enter image description here enter image description here

  • 1
    Your answer is confusing. I do see in your reference a discussion on the LXX choice of translation for v. 20, but I still don't see a clear answer to the OP's question; namely, why they choose to translate נחרו into breast? Is this due to a variant text, or something else? Please elaborate
    – bach
    May 10, 2020 at 15:51
  • It literally says "one could speculate the translator had difficulty interpreting the Hebrew,...the translator continued the thought of v19...the symmetrical contruction is retained".
    – Codosaur
    May 11, 2020 at 7:16

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.