How did the translators of the LXX out of the Hebrew text of Job 39:20 decide to use the word "breast" where the Hebrew text (Stuttgarsenia) has the Hebrew word "snort" (Brown Driver Briggs 637b)?
1Welcome to BH. Please take a moment to take the Tour and see the Help (below) to see how the the site works. As it stands, you are actually asking a matter of opinion 'How did (they) decide ?' which only 'they' could divulge. I suggest you edit the question so that you are asking for a factual answer rather than an unproveable opinion of an historic decision.– Nigel JApr 24, 2020 at 17:57
This is, perhaps, another example where the text of the LXX and BHS differ - there are numerous such examples - some involving numerous added verses etc.– DottardApr 24, 2020 at 22:03
As explained in Style and Context of Old Greek Job
1Your answer is confusing. I do see in your reference a discussion on the LXX choice of translation for v. 20, but I still don't see a clear answer to the OP's question; namely, why they choose to translate נחרו into breast? Is this due to a variant text, or something else? Please elaborate– bachMay 10, 2020 at 15:51
It literally says "one could speculate the translator had difficulty interpreting the Hebrew,...the translator continued the thought of v19...the symmetrical contruction is retained".– CodosaurMay 11, 2020 at 7:16