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How did the translators of the LXX out of the Hebrew text of Job 39:20 decide to use the word "breast" where the Hebrew text (Stuttgarsenia) has the Hebrew word "snort" (Brown Driver Briggs 637b)?

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    Welcome to BH. Please take a moment to take the Tour and see the Help (below) to see how the the site works. As it stands, you are actually asking a matter of opinion 'How did (they) decide ?' which only 'they' could divulge. I suggest you edit the question so that you are asking for a factual answer rather than an unproveable opinion of an historic decision. – Nigel J Apr 24 '20 at 17:57
  • This is, perhaps, another example where the text of the LXX and BHS differ - there are numerous such examples - some involving numerous added verses etc. – Dottard Apr 24 '20 at 22:03
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Hebrew:

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LXX:

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As explained in Style and Context of Old Greek Job

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    Your answer is confusing. I do see in your reference a discussion on the LXX choice of translation for v. 20, but I still don't see a clear answer to the OP's question; namely, why they choose to translate נחרו into breast? Is this due to a variant text, or something else? Please elaborate – Bach May 10 '20 at 15:51
  • It literally says "one could speculate the translator had difficulty interpreting the Hebrew,...the translator continued the thought of v19...the symmetrical contruction is retained". – Codosaur May 11 '20 at 7:16

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