4

Hebrews 2:10 (ASV):

For it became him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the author of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

What is the meaning of perfecting Jesus through sufferings?

Isn't He already perfect?

Aren't sufferings of the Christ for Salvation of the Sinners, not for perfection of the Christ?

4
  • 1
    Do you have a Bible in your native language? Could you read it, such as Heb 2:10, then ask or translate your question into English? What word does it use for "perfecting"? The other, older English meaning of perfecting is "completing." Christ already was divine. He became human (Jn 1:14). I believe for HIm to be made perfect was for Him to be made complete in His human experience (of suffering). To be the human-divine Author of my, and many other sons', complete salvation, He had to experience the "full" amount of sufferings, especially that of death (2:9, 14, 18; Isa 53).
    – Walter S
    Commented Apr 16, 2020 at 19:06
  • 1
    Does this answer your question? What does "made perfect" mean in Heb 5:9?
    – Nigel J
    Commented Apr 16, 2020 at 19:29
  • 2
    @Walter Smetana, your comment would make a nice answer.
    – Steve11235
    Commented Apr 16, 2020 at 20:33
  • 1
    He said to them, Go and tell that fox, Behold, I cast out demons and accomplish healings today and tomorrow, and on the third day I am perfected.
    – Walter S
    Commented Apr 16, 2020 at 23:49

5 Answers 5

2

Hebrews 2:10, what is the meaning of perfecting Jesus through sufferings?

Hebrews 2:10 (ASV):

For it became him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons unto glory, to make the author of their salvation perfect through sufferings.

Isn't He already perfect?

Yes, the Scriptures show that Jesus was a perfect human being, unblemished and spotless and continued to maintain his perfection and integrity under test.

1 Peter 1:18-19 (NASB)

18 knowing that you were not [a]redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers, 19 but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ.

What is the meaning of perfecting Jesus through sufferings?

To maintain his perfection and integrity under test, was in accord with God's purpose.

Hebrews 2:10 (NASB) [Jesus] in brackets entered in verse by me

10 For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author [Jesus] of their salvation through sufferings

Aren't sufferings of the Christ for Salvation of the Sinners, not for perfection of the Christ?

By Jesus’ proving himself perfectly righteous and sinless through his entire life and ministry, including his sacrifice, provided the basis for declaring righteous those persons having faith in Christ.

Christ thus "gave himself a corresponding ransom for all." Not all will avail themselves of this provision for salvation, but God approves the application of its benefits to those who accept it in faith.​ Romans 5:17-19, 1 Timothy 2:5-6

1 Timothy 2:5-6 (NASB)

5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus, 6 who gave Himself as a ransom for all, the testimony [a]given at [b]the proper time.

Romans 5:17-19 (NASB)

17 For if by the transgression of the one, death reigned through the one, much more those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ. 18 So then as through one transgression [a]there resulted in condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness [b]there resulted in the justification of life to all men.19 For as through the one man’s disobedience, the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.

2

The telos ("end") of something is its purpose. Jesus fulfilled his purpose when he became 'perfect,' in this context, in accomplishing that purpose, and not before (otherwise his doing what He came to do, and not doing it, would be identical, which they are obviously not).

This isn't about moral perfection, since the same Epistle says he did not sin (4:5). It's perfection of mission.

2

From the BDAG:

τελειόω

① to complete an activity, complete, bring to an end, finish, accomplish

② to overcome or supplant an imperfect state of things by one that is free fr. objection, bring to an end, bring to its goal/accomplishment

The idea of make perfect falls under the second entry, as does a note on this verse.

Looking at the context, Jesus could not perform his role "perfectly" until he had experienced human suffering himself.

This is the conundrum of the Son of God becoming man and experiencing death so that he could overcome death for all.

Also, see 4.15, where Jesus is able to sympathize with our weaknesses.

1

Hebrews 2:10 Could we read it like this? 'That their salvation is made perfect through Christ's suffering.' Isn't Christ, the Son of God, the perfect pioneer? How can the pioneer be made perfect? In Christ's suffering we are made perfect.

1
  • the text is clear, Jesus made perfect.
    – salah
    Commented Apr 16, 2020 at 18:59
1

Jesus was "made complete" in his suffering, not in that he lacked anything, but that his life was intended to be one of suffering, ending in death. In other words, he fulfilled all the prophetic things that were spoken of the Messiah; we know this, keeping in mind what Jesus said to the Emmaus disciples, "This is what is written: The Messiah will suffer and rise from the dead on the third day" (Luke 24:46).

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.