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Daniel 9:27 reads differently in the Hebrew and in the Greek and Mark's saying is not an exact match to either version. Is Jesus, in Mark 13:14, referring to what appears in the Hebrew or the Greek OT?

[Mar 13:14 CSB] (14) "When you see the abomination of desolation standing where it should not be" (let the reader understand), "then those in Judea must flee to the mountains.

[Mar 13:14 MGNT] (14) ὅταν δὲ ἴδητε τὸ βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως ἑστηκότα ὅπου οὐ δεῖ ὁ ἀναγινώσκων νοείτω τότε οἱ ἐν τῇ Ἰουδαίᾳ φευγέτωσαν εἰς τὰ ὄρη

[Dan 9:27 NASB] (27) "And he will make a firm covenant with the many for one week, but in the middle of the week he will put a stop to sacrifice and grain offering; and on the wing of abominations will come one who makes desolate, even until a complete destruction, one that is decreed, is poured out on the one who makes desolate."

[Dan 9:27 WLC] (27) והגביר ברית לרבים שבוע אחד וחצי השבוע ישבית זבח ומנחה ועל כנף שקוצים משמם ועד־כלה ונחרצה תתך על־שמם׃ פ

[Dan 9:27 Brenton] And one week shall establish the covenant with many: and in the midst of the week my sacrifice and drink-offering shall be taken away: and on the temple shall be the abomination of desolations; and at the end of time an end shall be put to the desolation.

[Dan 9:27 LXX] (27) καὶ δυναμώσει διαθήκην πολλοῗς ἑβδομὰς μία καὶ ἐν τῷ ἡμίσει τῆς ἑβδομάδος ἀρθήσεταί μου θυσία καὶ σπονδή καὶ ἐπὶ τὸ ἱερὸν βδέλυγμα τῶν ἐρημώσεων καὶ ἕως συντελείας καιροῦ συντέλεια δοθήσεται ἐπὶ τὴν ἐρήμωσιν

Related: https://www.quora.com/What-is-the-Abomination-of-Desolation-spoken-of-by-Daniel-in-the-Bible/answer/Bill-Ross-22

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    Somebody has flagged a need for clarity on the question. I can't seriously entertain that to be a valid reason for Closing this specific question under the site guidelines - but agree that a little more detail would be beneficial. Users shouldn't need to click on the external link to understand the rationale behind the question. – Steve Taylor Apr 13 at 10:16
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The “abomination of desolation” (or similar phrase) occurs only in the following verses: Dan 8:13, 9:27, 11:31, 12:11, Matt 24:15, Mark 13:14 (compare Luke 21:20-24 and Rev 11:2). The phrase might be more helpfully translated, “depopulating sacrilege”. It is also alluded to in several other places as well. Let us list the characteristics of the abomination of desolation from these references.

  • It causes the cessation of the “daily” (Heb: Tamid) usually understood to be the daily (or continual) sacrifice (Dan 8:13)
  • It occurs because of rebellion (presumably of those supposed to be God’s people. Non-Christians and non-Jews cannot rebel because they have not declared loyalty to God.) (Dan 8:13)
  • It ushers in a period (“times of Gentiles” according to Luke) where the sanctuary and God’s people will trampled underfoot (Dan 8:13)
  • It is associated with a coming ruler (not Messiah), presumably, the antichrist (Dan 9:27). See also 2 Thess 2:1-12.
  • Dan 11:31 appears to equate the King of the North with the one who would abolish the daily sacrifice (Heb: “Tamid”) and desecrate the temple fortress and thus remove (depopulate) the temple of worshipers.
  • There are three time periods associated with the abomination of desolation: 2300 days until its end (Dan 8:13); 1260 days from its beginning (Dan 12:11, 42 and months in Rev 11:2), 70 weeks (Dan 9:24-27).
  • The abomination of desolation is to stand in the holy place (Hebrew idiom for either the temple or Jerusalem Matt 4:5, 27:53, 24:15, Acts 6:13, 21:28) (Matt 24:15) and is where this ruler does not belong (Mark 13:14). This is the signal for those in Jerusalem to immediately flee and the beginning of the depopulation of Jerusalem of Christians. * See update below.
  • The abomination of desolation was in Jesus’ time still future (Matt 24:15). (Therefore this could not have been Antiochus Epiphanes.)

It is immediately obvious that Jesus applies this prophecy (at least in part) to the destruction of the temple (which occurred in 70 AD) that temporarily depopulated Jerusalem, in his famous sermon recorded in Matt 24, Mark 13 and Luke 21, collectively called the “Synoptic Apocalypse”. But it is also obvious that Jesus intended far more than this. The question that prompted this sermon is a two-fold question (Matt 24:3) about both the destruction of Jerusalem and Jesus’ Second Advent. Jesus’ response was to answer both questions simultaneously by giving a dual prophecy.

* UPDATE:

Historical note: According to Josephus and a few other locals, the siege of Jerusalem began when Vespasian was ordered (by Nero) to destroy Jerusalem in 66 AD. It was probably an insurrection in Egypt that caused the siege to be abandoned the following year. This caused great jubilation amongst the Jews who believed they had been miraculously saved. By contrast, the Christians in Jerusalem recalled the prophecy of Jesus and took the opportunity to flee Jerusalem. Jews flooded into Jerusalem. In 68 AD the siege was re-established and in 69/70 AD, with Vespasian now emperor, he asked his son, Titus, to complete the siege. In 70 AD the wall was breached and many Jews perished but no Christians.

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  • Thank you Dottard, Can you please elaborate a bit more on this point, with how this is supported by Daniel 9:27?: "The abomination of desolation is to stand in the holy place (Hebrew idiom for either the temple or Jerusalem) (Matt 24:15) and is where this ruler does not belong (Mark 13:14). This is the signal for those in Jerusalem to immediately flee and the beginning of the depopulation of Jerusalem of Christians." – Ruminator Apr 13 at 22:23
  • @Dottard, Your answer has greatly clarified my longstanding questions and provided good reasoning concerning the meaning of this being of a dual purpose. – Bill Porter Apr 16 at 15:51
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I double-posted this question on the B-Greek website (as noted in my original question above) and received a great answer which I'm quoting below in its entirety:

Well the only thing of relevance in Mark 13:14 is τὸ βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως:

Ὅταν δὲ ἴδητε τὸ βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως ἑστηκότα ὅπου οὐ δεῖ, ὁ ἀναγινώσκων νοείτω, τότε οἱ ἐν τῇ Ἰουδαίᾳ φευγέτωσαν εἰς τὰ ὄρη

As for whether τὸ βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως is better served from either the Hebrew or the LXX, it really accords with both similarly:

Hebrew Daniel 9:27: וְהִגְבִּ֥יר בְּרִ֛ית לָרַבִּ֖ים שָׁב֣וּעַ אֶחָ֑ד וַחֲצִ֨י הַשָּׁב֜וּעַ יַשְׁבִּ֣ית׀ זֶ֣בַח וּמִנְחָ֗ה וְעַ֨ל כְּנַ֤ף שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם וְעַד־כָּלָה֙ וְנֶ֣חֱרָצָ֔ה תִּתַּ֖ךְ עַל־שֹׁמֵֽם

OG Daniel 9:27: καὶ δυναστεύσει ἡ διαθήκη εἰς πολλούς· καὶ πάλιν ἐπιστρέψει, καὶ ἀνοικοδομηθήσεται εἰς πλάτος καὶ μῆκος καὶ κατὰ συντέλειαν καιρῶν, καὶ μετὰ ἑπτὰ καὶ ἑβδομήκοντα καιροὺς καὶ ξβʹ ἐτῶν ἕως καιροῦ συντελείας πολέμου, καὶ ἀφαιρεθήσεται ἡ ἐρήμωσις ἐν τῷ κατισχῦσαι τὴν διαθήκην ἐπὶ πολλὰς ἑβδομάδας· καὶ ἐν τῷ τέλει τῆς ἑβδομάδος ἀρθήσεται ἡ θυσία καὶ ἡ σπονδή, καὶ ἐπὶ τὸ ἱερὸν βδέλυγμα τῶν ἐρημώσεων ἔσται ἕως συντελείας, καὶ συντέλεια δοθήσεται ἐπὶ τὴν ἐρήμωσιν.

The corresponding Hebrew is שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם, meaning (literally) "abominations desolating" = "desolating abominations," which the LXX has as βδέλυγμα τῶν ἐρημώσεων "abomination of desolations," which in turn is somewhat half and half in Mark 13:14 (singular desolation to correspond with the underlying Hebrew singular participle), with שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם being taken as a construct.

The issue is with regards to what occurs before שִׁקּוּצִים֙ מְשֹׁמֵ֔ם, namely וְעַ֨ל כְּנַ֤ף which means "and upon the extremity/wing," which is somewhat difficult to interpret in regards to the rest of the verse. The original Greek Daniel either had quite the different underlying Hebrew (τὸ ἱερὸν would usually indicate the Hebrew בַּ֫יִת / house, home, palace, temple, Holy Place etc.), or was edited at quite an early stage.

Another proposal is to read עַל־כַּנּוֹ ("on its place") instead of וְעַ֨ל כְּנַ֤ף, with a suggestion the Hebrew text is also somewhat corrupt in this place in Daniel.

The actual source of Mark 13:14 is Daniel 12:11:

ἀφʼ οὗ ἂν ἀποσταθῇ ἡ θυσία διὰ παντὸς καὶ ἑτοιμασθῇ δοθῆναι τὸ βδέλυγμα τῆς ἐρημώσεως, ἡμέρας χιλίας διακοσίας ἐνενήκοντα.

...which is more likely for whence the phrase found it's origin, rather than Daniel 9:27.

Obviously I was a bit in the weeds with my original question as the quote is clearly from Daniel 12:11. However the analysis of Daniel 9:27 was relevant as it is very obscure itself!

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  • You should probably cite the author of the post, and give a link if possible... good answer though, you're right. – curiousdannii May 6 at 13:15
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    @curiousdannii I added the link. Thanks for calling my attention to that. – Ruminator May 6 at 13:20

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