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John 6:46: No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.

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According to John 1:18, "No man has seen God at any time, the only begotten God/NASB, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him."

The "fulness" of God as stated in vs16 could not be known through any ordinary man. It must come through the One who possesses the nature of God. The word "God" is stated first and is without the definite article. This indicates first, that the emphasis is on the word "God" and second, the nature of God is the object of our attention.

John 4:24 is teaching that God is a spiritual being. At John 14:8 Philip said to Him/Jesus, "Lord show us the Father, and it is enough for us." Verse 9, "Jesus said to him, "Have I been so long with you, and you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, Show us the Father?"

This is "NOT" teaching that Jesus Christ is God the Father. It's teaching that the Father has no separate manifestation from the Son. The Son is the "ONLY" manifestation and revelation of the Father.

What is know of the Father is revealed through the Son. To see the Son is to see the essence of the Father. (John 1:18; John 10:30, John 12:45; Colossians 1:15, Hebrews 1:3.)

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  • Excellent. Fully agree with your point that Theos is a matter of Divine nature, as opposed to Divine Person, the error avoided being the (false) supposition that 'God' always means 'Father' - the Unitarian position. (+1). – Nigel J Apr 12 '20 at 20:19
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    Very good and concise explanation of a difficult and tricky subject - (+1). – Dottard Apr 12 '20 at 22:15
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    Mr. Bond, your answer triggers a lot of questions: If Jesus Christ is the ‘Word/Logos’ of God, how can He be the only begotten God; can we say God begot God? How do you understand the word ‘fullness’? John 4:24 says ‘God IS SPIRIT’ indicating His invisibility; so, what do you mean by ‘God is A spiritual being’? Can the words like ‘being’ and ‘person’ be used to explain God who IS Spirit and therefore INVISIBLE, OMNIPRESENT?When sharing truth, let us do our best to be honest with no bias towards our denominational orientation. – Tesfaye Wolde Apr 13 '20 at 15:56
  • @TesfayeWolde I use the NASB which does use the word "God." The following explains why? hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/6/… God is spirit by His nature which means that God is a spiritual being. Your human by nature which means your a human being. God's nature separates Him from all natures that are not God. Your human nature separates you from all natures that are not human. Being is defined as having existence. Person is defined as the qualities constituting one that exist. Jesus is the physical manifestation of God's invisibility. – Mr. Bond Apr 13 '20 at 19:44

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