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The BDAG states the use of life in John 5:26 means transcendent life of God and Christ:

For as the Father hath life in himself; so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself. (KJV)

I understand what Jesus is saying as a fulfillment Psalm 2:

I will tell of the decree: The LORD said to me, “You are my Son; today I have begotten you. (Psalm 2:7 ESV)

Which seems to be when He was baptized:

Now when all the people were baptized, and when Jesus also had been baptized and was praying, the heavens were opened, and the Holy Spirit descended on him in bodily form, like a dove; and a voice came from heaven, “You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased.” (Luke 3:21-22 ESV)

Was Psalm 2:7 fulfilled when Jesus was baptized?

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  • Peter attributes the Psalm's prophecy to Jesus' resurrection, not Jesus' baptism : God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee. [Acts 13:33]
    – Nigel J
    Mar 23 '20 at 5:31
  • @NigelJ The passage in Acts is introduced "this he fulfilled to us..." the Psalm is "You are My Son..." spoken to the Son. So I think there is a difference. IOW it appeared to us to be fulfilled at His baptism (when the Father called Him Son), but His death appeared to us to negate the fulfillment. When He was raised from the dead what happened at His baptism was fulfilled to us. Mar 23 '20 at 14:23
  • It is Paul, of course, not Peter, who speaks Acts 13:33. My error.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 23 '20 at 14:29
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    ...What is BDAG?
    – OmarL
    Mar 23 '20 at 15:33
  • @Wilson BDAG is the acronym for Bauer, Danker, Arndt, and Gingrich, a Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament. Mar 23 '20 at 16:01
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“Today” is considered by many scholars and commentators to refer to what is called “the eternal generation of the Son” and his eternal sonship and cannot in any way speak of his humanity. Origen, believed that “today” is that timeless ever-present, eternal day which Christ inhabits. That since time has no boundries with God, it is thus always “today.”

While Jesus is indeed the eternal self-existing One, without beginning and without end, this is not the point made by the Hebrew writer in verse five. The context of verse five is not to establish the eternal existence of Jesus, but to declare through the Psalmist the enthronement of Zion's King. “Today” does not speak of Jesus timeless, eternal existence but points to a definitive point in linear time. Verse five is not presenting Jesus as God in eternity but as man in his mediatorial role. A.W. Pink, in his Exposition of Hebrews pp. 50-51 properly regards “today” as a fixed point in linear time, but he then misapplies the point of time. Pink points to the virgin birth as the “today” in which Jesus was called begotten. He then appeals to Luke 2:11 which reads “Unto you is born this day in the city of David a savior which is Christ the Lord.” But, as in all cases, it behooves us to allow scripture to interpret its own terminology.

In Acts 13:31-38, Paul addresses the Jewish officials in the synagogue of Pisidian Antioch and shows that Jesus is the divinely appointed King who is David's heir to the throne. The fact that Jesus is raised from the dead was the fulfillment of Psalms 2:7, Today I have begotten you.” So, “today,” according to Paul's inspired interpretation, refers not to Jesus' eternal sonship, nor to his incarnation. Its fulfillment was his resurrection from the dead. “God has fulfilled this...in that he RAISED HIM FROM THE DEAD as it also says in the second Psalm 'Today I have begotten you.'” If Paul confirms “today” as the specific point in time, this renders all other interpretations to the contrary null and void. “Today,” in the context of Hebrew chapter one points to the four temporal indicators which overturn all other speculations about the understanding of the term “today.” After Jesus accomplished all these things by means of his death, burial, and resurrection, the declaration is made by the Father, “You are my Son, Today have I begotten you.”

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  • Very well said!
    – Gina
    Mar 23 '20 at 14:14
  • Yes. It is the begetting from the dead, in humanity, that is in focus.
    – Nigel J
    Mar 23 '20 at 14:30
  • 1. If you are going to place this in the context of Hebrews you should address the other elements that writer makes, for He was a Son before He died (5:8) not after He was raised. Hebrews also speaks about two different positions King and Priest and there is nothing to suggest that they were or had to be fulfilled simultaneously. 2. The meaning of “today” σήμερον, is today or this day. Obviously when considered in light of an eternal kingdom, there is that aspect, but that doesn’t eliminate the fact it had a moment of beginning - one does not negate the other. Mar 23 '20 at 15:01
  • 3. My question is about Psalm 2, where first there is a Son and then the Son asks and receives the nations and the earth as His possession. The two actions are distinct in time, as are King and Priest. In any event, it is clear Jesus was and is recognized as Son of God before His death, so you should explain the difference if in fact Psalm 2 was fulfilled after His baptism. Mar 23 '20 at 15:02
  • Psalms 2:7 has nothing to do with the baptism of Jesus. Peter confirms that the resurrection of Jesus was the fulfillment of that Psalm. Jesus served as the high priest at his own sacrifice. Hebrews 1 is a picture of Jesus' reinstatement of everything he has set aside in Philippians 2, even to the point of being seated on the throne of heaven, receiving the royal scepter of righteousness, and ruling till his enemies are put under his feet. All of this was the outcome of his resurrection.
    – oldhermit
    Mar 23 '20 at 15:34
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God has fully fulfilled this promise to us their children in raising up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, ``You are My Son; this day have I begotten You.'' Ac 13:33

Having made purification of sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; having become as much better than the angels as to have inherited a more distinguished name than they. For to which of the angels has He ever said, You are My Son; this day have I begotten You''? And again,I will be a Father to Him, and He will be a Son to Me''? And when He brings again the Firstborn... Heb 1

Christ did not glorify Himself in becoming a High Priest, but it was He who said to Him, You are My Son; this day have I begotten You''; even as also in another place He says,You are a Priest forever according to the order of Melchisedec.'' This One, in the days of His flesh, having offered up both petitions and supplications with strong crying and tears to Him who was able to save Him out of death and having been heard because of His piety, even though He was a Son, learned obedience from the things which He suffered. And having been perfected, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation, being addressed by God as a High Priest according to the order of Melchisedec… Heb 5.

so no

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  • Although he was a Son, he learned obedience through what he suffered. (Hebrews 5:8) So if He was a Son when suffered, when did He become a Son before suffering? Mar 23 '20 at 14:43
  • Father, Son, and Spirit are eternal, God. Christ is both God and man. God made man, and Christ became what They made. In His divinity, Christ was never not the Son of God. You could say He is eternally-generated, eternally-begotten, of God (Jn 3:16; Heb 7:3) because They are and were never not Father and Son. The Father never didn't give life to the Son (Jn 5:26; 11:25). He always does and has. Lk 3:22 doesn't say or suggest "You've become My Son," but that "You are My Son," at His baptism in water. He also says so at His transfiguration in Mt 17:5.
    – Walter S
    Mar 23 '20 at 17:22
  • Maybe I am taking things too literally by thinking fully human means just that, with physical life and without transcendent life. You and I can become children of God by believing in His name and so obtain transcendent life, Can that work for Him? Or does He become the only begotten Son because He was given life by the Father? If so when did that happen: before or after He became fully human? Mar 23 '20 at 17:32
  • Fully human means physical life, with psychological life and a spirit, Gen 2:7; Lk 1:35-36; 1 Cor 11:12; made uniquely in the image and the likeness of our God, Gen 1:26; Lk 3:38; for God's purpose of filling and living in us who believed into and received (Jn 1:12, 16; 3:16; 20:22, 31) His Son, and who were predestinated by God for divine sonship. (Which means abiding in Him permanently.) He already was Son of God, who became Son of Man, then became Son of God, "officially designated" so in His humanity, Rm 1:3-4. To destroy sin and give God. He became us so that we may become Him.
    – Walter S
    Mar 23 '20 at 18:29
  • I do not disagree with anything you have said about who He is. I think it is worth considering all the implications of the Word becoming flesh (i.e. "emptying Himself" Phil 2:7) and His later statement about being given life from the Father, which is often used to "prove" He was not God, but was created. Mar 23 '20 at 19:01
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Was Psalm 2:7 fulfilled when Jesus was baptized?

This is clearly a dispensation issue. John was God's messenger to the Jews with instructions to tell them that Christ's earthly kingdom of heaven was at hand--the Son-of-man and Son of God King was alive and visibly walking in the flesh in Israel. Both John's message and baptism was directed only to the Jews. John's liquid water baptism was to make manifest Jesus (in the flesh) to Israel, in John 1:29-31:

The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water. (My emphasis)

This is the question that naturally arose in John 3:25-26 concerning that Jewish earthly matter of purifying that existed under the law of Moses:

Then there arose a question between some of John's disciples and the Jews about purifying. And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him.

Both John's message and baptism were perfectly explained by John in John 3:27-36:

.... He must increase, but I must decrease. He that cometh from above is above all: he that is of the earth is earthly, and speaketh of the earth: he that cometh from heaven is above all.... And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost. (My emphasis)

Two different baptisms and two different messages: John's was concerning the visible Kingdom of Heaven on earth. Jesus' is the invisible, spiritual heavenly Kingdom of God--"that cometh not with observation."

When John fianally baptized Jesus, that was the fulfillment of John's mission--that He should be made manifest to Israel as the living flesh and blood Son of God who would be both the earthly King of kings and the heavenly Savior. That message of these two dispensations has become the Gospel of Jesus Christ who is over all things, heavenly and earthly.

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