I have a few questions about tongues during the Pentecost event in acts. Here is the main verse :
And when this sound was heard, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speaking in his own language. (Greek, Biblehub) [ESV]
Continuing Context :
And they were amazed and astonished, saying, “Are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language? 9Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, 11both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians—we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God.” And all were amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, “What does this mean?” 13 But others mocking said, “They are filled with new wine.” [ESV]
I have always been told that the speaker speaking is speaking in other languages, but whenever I read it as translated here in ESV, and given the continuing context of those speaking all being Galileans, it sounds like any particular person that was speaking was heard to be speaking in Aramaic by one and Egyptian by another.
So for example if Peter got up and said "X", one person would have heard Peter say "X" in Aramaic and another would have heard Peter say "X" in Hebrew. Given some experienced it and some didn't it seems a lot like John 12:29 where some heard an angel speak while others simply heard thunder. What does the grammar support? Also, when the mockers say "they" are filled with new wine, are they referring to the speakers, or the hearers?