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I came across this translation of the Bible, https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/Hebrew_Index.htm, and the following phrase really jumped out at me:

Genesis 1:3: and he-is-saying Elohim he-shall-become light and he-is-becoming light

I cannot read Hebrew. My first question is, if someone were reading the Hebrew, could the phrase also be read this way:

And he, Elohim, is saying that he (someone else) will become light, and he (the someone else) is becoming light

The basis for my question is this word choice in this English Hebrew Interlinear Bible combined with what is written in John 1:3:

All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. [ESV]

If my reformulation of that sentence is valid, it seems to me that John is saying that, when God uttered what we commonly read as, "Let there be light", what God was really doing is speaking to Jesus Christ and telling Jesus Christ to "become light".

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    It looks a stretch to me, as the same word (though with an & prefix) is used at the ends of verses 7 and 9 – Henry Feb 8 at 2:25
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    The Biblehub Interlinear Hebrew reads entirely differently to your citation. Young's Literal Translation reads and God saith, `Let light be;' and light is.. – Nigel J Feb 8 at 8:46
  • There is a way for the first quote of the verse to make sense but not from within itself but from a broader theological framework. As such it’s more of an interpretation and less of a translation. Translations seek to remain true to the original text and allow the text to give the interpretation. This is imposing an interpretation onto a translation and therefore onto the original Hebrew text which misalign. Even if this interpretation were true Gen1:3 doesn’t say what is being implied. – Nihil Sine Deo Feb 12 at 14:44
  • the English you are reading is as if you were explaining the entire parsing of the verb (amar / אמר) - to say. Since it is in the 3rd person masculine - he - they are including that in the English and it reads funny. I answered the question below but thought I would explain up top for future readers. – S. Broberg Feb 15 at 1:40
  • how could he be, Jesus wasn't born yet! – user48152 Jul 15 at 23:30
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Beware of using interlinears. They are virtually only useful - and safe - when armed with a preliminary familiarity with (1) foreign languages in general, and basic acquaintance with translating between them, and (2) the basics of Hebrew grammar in particular. Without such a foundation and background, they can be very misleading - I'm speaking from experience.

The short answer to your question is a resounding and resolute 'no.' This may not ever be translated "he." It's true that the verb is 'masculine,' but that's only because Hebrew only has masculine or feminine nouns (and thus attendant verbs); however, grammatical gender doesn't refer to human gender or sex- except by coincidence. If there is no male referent or subject in the context, it is assume to be "it" - as indeed it is often translated: "Now it came to pass" (wa yehi) - the same Hebrew words here translated "and it {light} was."

Besides, as to John 1: how can "the light of world" not innately be such. What was he before? What creature can be called the light?

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No. What you are seeing in that translation (here is a pdf https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/OTpdf/gen1.pdf) is as if someone is parsing the verb V'yomer (ויאמר)

The "vav" pronounced 'va' is normally translated "and"

Then, the verb you are seeing (Yomer / יאמר) is the verb (Amar/ אמר) - which means "say" but in the imperfect (future) tense and as a 3rd person masculine (he). that is where you are seeing the "he is saying."

The "vav" makes the imperfect (he will say) and turns it into a present or past (he said). Sometimes called a "vav consecutive."

Then the 3rd person masculine has to match the subject which is doing the speaking. In this case God (Elohim). So if you were parsing the verbs that sentence you saw would make sense.

In Hebrew, the verb normally comes first and then the subject.

A smooth translation into English is "And God said..."

Again - when you see the "he shall become" - it is only because the verb is parsed as a 3rd person masculine.

Hope this helps.

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NO, He was NOT speaking TO Jesus, who was the the very WORD of God. When God "speaks" TO the WORD of God, He speaks to Himself, as in Isaiah 48:3:

I have declared the former things from the beginning; and they went forth out of my mouth, and I shewed them; I did them suddenly, and they came to pass.

And, in Isaiah 48:16:

Come ye near unto me, hear ye this; I have not spoken in secret from the beginning; from the time that it was, there am I: and now the Lord GOD, and his Spirit, hath sent me.

Clearly, the One described as the "speaker God", always stays in His own lane as the speaker. All the way through scripture, it is the speaker of God who is called "I am." That was the power of the phrase, "I am." God is a speaking and hearing God who created, made, formed, and established man with the ability to hear God's perfect WORD--always good, and to speak man's own mind--good or bad.

Rather, here in verse 3, God is typically associating that invisible WORD of God with the invisible "waters" of verse 2, exactly as John 1:4 describes Jesus, who was at that time of the beginning, the invisible eternal WORD of John 1:3-4

3) All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4) In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

If this needs explaining, the phrase, "The heaven and the earth" is a joint definite direct object of the verb, created, as flagged and demanded by the particle, תאֵ (‘eth) preceding the word, hasshamayim (the heavens), together with the "enjoining" particle", תוְאֵ (ve’et or, and ‘eth) preceding the word, ‘erets (earth). So God created IT ALL in verse one and God described exactly what he had created in verse 2; "the waters" within one deep area of space--each having a commonly positioned outer "face".

Those waters were invisible gaseous-like matter that were "without form, and void"--exactly as we define the word gas:

Gas: A state of matter in which the molecules are practically unrestricted by cohesive forces. A gas has neither a definite shape, nor volume.

NOTE: The Hebrew word translated as "waters" in Genesis 1:2 is the noun "mayim". It is very important to recognize that mayim is the Hebrew dual—an inherent twosome—of a primitive noun that is used in a singular sense. This dual-form word that is used in a singular sense is just like the noun phrase, "the heaven and the earth" of Genesis 1:1 that speaks of a single body containing two inherent parts or groups. The original Genesis 1:2 waters can and should be properly described as that single body of matter from which God, over a period of six days, made exactly two universally recognized classes of material things—earthly things and heavenly things—the twosome of this very special and respected Hebrew dual, "mayim".

https://www.thefreelibrary.com/A%20study%20on%20the%20dual%20form%20of%20mayim,%20water.-a0293949747

On Day 2, He divided those waters into exactly two bodies of invisible gaseous waters--heavenly and earthly waters. Thereafter, on days three and four, He made ALL Worlds by those two bodies of invisible waters, respectively--both of which came from that ONE BODY OF WATERS OF VERSE 2. Compare with Hebrews 11:3:

Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.

However, in Genesis 2:4 He more particularly INSTRUCTIVELY described those two tasks--the earthly bodies and the heavenly bodies--by inverting the phrase, "the heavens and the earth," because He made and formed the earth and it's several seas BEFORE He made and formed all the heavenly bodies.

These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens. . . . (my emphasis)

Light is energy. God's first law of thermodynamics (the Conservation of Energy) discovered by man states:

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. That is why God's perfect WORD declared in Isaiah 45:7: I form the light and create darkness I make peace and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.

So that light in verse three was already created in verse 2 being in the waters. This is God's absolute science. God knows fact from theory.

Every type in scripture has an associated flaw that points out that it is merely a type. The waters were never specifically declared here to have been created--it is only understood from verse one that waters was the matter created. THEREFORE waters are not and were never actually the WORD of God, just merely a type, but a very important type.

ACCORDINGLY, In him--in the waters (the type)--in the WORD of God (the real thing)--was life; and the life was the light of men--that very light of verse 3. Jesus was that very light that had not been created, but rather was "made flesh"(in accordance with God's law of thermodynamics) in the world called earth under the law by those day 2 waters. Jesus was that very eternal WORD of God who claimed in John 9:5:

As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world.

Parts of this answer are taken from my paper at: http://circumspectnews.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/05/Gods-Day-One-Creation.pdf

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