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What is the purpose of personification at Ephesians 4:30?

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    Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat. – Soldarnal Jan 21 '20 at 16:11
  • ”Quotes from sources after the Bible was written, spurious or not cannot inform our view of what the NT writers believed.“ Like Dan Wallace’s! Case closed. – Nihil Sine Deo Jan 25 '20 at 17:00
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    Firstly the Holy Spirit is addressed as both a person and an it. Merit to the question. Secondly and I repeat, is Wallace a source after the ‘Bible’ was written? Yes, of course. And your whole question rests on a source and quote written centuries after the event when the language in question is no longer in use, and no one can claim to be an absolute authority on the Ancient Greek in good conscience. So if you can use Wallace, you are not in a position to demand other writers far closer to the event with a better understanding of the culture, historical context and the language not be quoted. – Nihil Sine Deo Jan 25 '20 at 19:48
  • Add verse in John 16:13 – Nihil Sine Deo Jan 25 '20 at 22:32
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    You've improved the title of the question, but the source passage still isn't the focus of your inquiry. You've included scores of text around a wider exegetical issue, with zero evidence of any personal reading or investigation around the source passage itself. Having looked through a few of your questions, this is a repeating pattern that's causing a lot of your questions to be closed, and something worth reflecting on. If I were you, I'd strip out all the content which isn't about Ephesians 4:30 and its original context, and re-use all your other quotes in an Answer to your own question. – Steve Taylor Jan 28 '20 at 8:49
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What is the purpose of personification at Ephesians 4:30?

ΠΡΟΣ ΕΦΕΣΙΟΥΣ 4:30 1881 Westcott-Hort New Testament (WHNU)

30 και μη λυπειτε το πνευμα το αγιον του θεου εν ω εσφραγισθητε εις ημεραν απολυτρωσεως

ke me lypeite to pneuma to hagion tou theou en ho esfragistete eis hemeran apolutroseos.

Ephesians 4:30

(NRSV )" And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with which you were marked with a seal for the day of redemption.

(NABRE) " And do not grieve the holy Spirit of God, with which you were sealed for the day of redemption."

(NWT) " Also, do not be grieving* God’s holy spirit,+ with which you have been sealed+ for a day of releasing by ransom."

(YLT) "And make not sorrowful the Holy Spirit of God, in which ye were sealed to a day of redemption

(KJV) " And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption."

(NASB) " Do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption."

(NIV) " And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, with whom you were sealed for the day of redemption."

(ESV) " And do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption."

How to translators handle the relative pronoun "which" in the phrase "en ho "

Our translators basically fall into two categories , the NRSV , NABRE, and NWT translate literally "with which" on "in which", the KJV offers "whereby". But the NASB , NIV , and ESV change the expression to "by/with whom"

The purpose of the personification - is theologigal bias .

Those translators are imposing their theology into the biblical text, such translations are biased, they do not heed to grammar, syntax and accuracy consistently , those translators have allowed their theological bias to interfere with accuracy.

Grasping spiritual truth is a gift from God, Jesus explains :

Matthew 11:25 (NRSV)

Jesus Thanks His Father.

25 "At that time Jesus said, “I thank[a] you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and the intelligent and have revealed them to infants."

God favors the humble, not the haughty. (James 4:6) He hides the truth from “wise and intellectual ones”​—worldly-wise and learned ones who in their pride and self-reliance feel no need for his help. (1 Corinthians 1:19-21) But he reveals the truth to “babes”​—those who come to him with sincere hearts, showing childlike humility.

Notes:

The holy Spirit "to pneuma to hagion " is neuter in the Greek language, in other words it is always referred to as an "it/which" and never with personal pronouns "who/whom." Sadly this is hidden from the innocent English reader. You will notice this bias in many verses e.g. Acts 5:32, 1 Corinthians 6:19 , John 14:26.

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    (-1) This is a well formatted but poorly constructed answer, which ignores the locus of the question ('grieve') and ends on a bit of a ramble. Saying 'with which' or 'with whom' is largely incidental to the question when the subject is 'grieving'. – Steve Taylor Jan 28 '20 at 9:07
  • Steve Taylor : Please note my answer on this question : Ephesians 4:30 - What does Paul mean by “grieve” the Holy Spirit? It is for this reason I answered just the main question, "The purpose of personification." I will be glad to chat with you the ramble. – Ozzie Ozzie Jan 28 '20 at 16:10
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    I'm not sure you're understanding - you haven't answered the main question, you've ignored it. Whether the HS is or isn't a person, εν ω can't tell us one way or the other, and your answer appears to slide that under the rug. I hope you already know εν ω can mean 'in which' or 'in whom' (e.g. Mt 3:17), dependent on context. In this case, the obvious personification in this context is to "grieve", which isn't a term for an inanimate object. Chairs and blueberries and wind don't grieve. If translators didn't have an obviously personified verb here, maybe your vilification would be justified. – Steve Taylor Jan 30 '20 at 15:36

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