Well I got some good news for you Mr.Ross since you quoted John 5:26. John 1:4, "In Him/Jesus Christ was life, and life was the light of men." The Apostle John is telling us that Jesus had life in Himself "BEFORE" His incarnation. And as a side note John 1:4 comes before John 5:26.
This power was given back to Him AFTER His resurrection, after He accomplished His mission as a man. Now, for a pious Jew to ascribe all power in heaven and earth to ANYONE is for him to acknowledge the absolute deity of that person.
1 John 1:1-3, "What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we beheld and our hands have handles, concerning the WORD OF LIFE." Vs2, and the life was manifested, and we have seen and bear witness and proclaim to you the ETERNAL LIFE, which was with the Father and was manifested to us. vs3, what we have seen and heard we proclaim to you also, that you also may have fellowship with us; and indeed our fellowship is with the Father, and with His Son Jesus Christ."
What happened is explained at Philippians 2:6-8. We are told explicitly that the Son was the very form of God, (Philippians vs2) The Greek word here is, "morphe" refers to the form that reveals or expresses the absolute nature of a thing. Jesus humbled Himself by taking upon Himself the form ("morphe" again) of a servant: the likeness of a man. He was not forced. He CHOSE to do so. That is why the Apostle Paul was using this as an example of humility.
So to sum up, God His Father did not force Jesus His Son to do anything. Like I said Jesus volunteered. Jesus went from being in the form or God or God to another form, i.e a servant/man. In fact Philippians 2:8 says, "And being found in the appearance as a man He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." Does that make sense to you?
First a couple of points about what's going on here at John 10:30-38. Some of the arguments presented regarding this text and others like John 5:18, John 8:58, here at John 10, John 19:7 and at the trial of Jesus at Matthew 26:57-66 is that the Jews did not understand, Jesus was "NOT" making Himself out to be God. To that I say complete and utter nonsense. If the Jews did not understand, then why does Jesus here at John 10:34-38 bring up Psalm 82:6,i.e the subject of "gods?" In other words, Jesus is being His own commentary on the subject.
Moreover, whether or not the Jews are correctly or even incorrectly understanding Jesus is not the issue. The issue is what was it that Jesus said (at the verses I mentioned above and in their context) that "CAUSED" them to say he was claiming to be God that so upset the Jews?
So why did Jesus bring up Psalm 82:6? There are a couple or more answers. What Jesus is simply doing is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion to show that they are being inconsistent. In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, "ye are gods." Nowhere does Jesus take back His statement and say that He is not one with His Father. (John 10:30). Jesus in fact draws a clear distinction between Himself and those by whom the word of God cam when He says that He was sanctified and sent into the world by God His Father.
Another answer which is kind of similar is the following. If those to whom the word of God came were called "god"--and the scripture cannot be annulled, can you say that the one whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world is blaspheming because I said, "I am God's Son?" If I am not doing the works of my Father (i.e. giving eternal life, raising the dead, healing people etc), then do not believe Me. But if I do them, even though you do not believe Me, believe the works, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father. What's amazing about all of this is nowhere do you find Jesus denying anything He said to the Jews. Jesus Christ is the one and only Son of God as in there are no others, John 3:16 makes this clear.
In Christianity humans become "adopted" sons of God, while Jesus is by nature the true Son of God. I like to ask the following question on this issue. Why would the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy and want to kill Him for claiming to be the Son of God when the Jews themselves claim to be "sons of God?" One other thing, at John 20:28 Thomas says literally to Jesus, "The Lord of me and the God of me." Why didn't Jesus correct Him and say, "No Thomas, I'm not your God? Hope this helps.