The big problem you have in your question Mr.theory is that your "assuming" Jesus Christ is a created human being like the rest of us, He's not. John 3:16 states, "For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish, but have eternal life."
In other words, Jesus Christ is the "one and only" Son of God by virtue of Him having the same nature as His Father, which is deity. Jesus Christ did not have a human father. He had a human mother and this is one of the reasons Jesus is referred to as the "Son of Man." Jesus also referred to Himself as the "Son of God."
Jesus is the only person that has two natures, one on His Fathers side/deity, and one on His mothers side/human. It a universal law all sons and daughters share the same nature as their father. Also, the Bible makes it extremely clear that Jesus Christ came down from heaven.
John 3:13 which by the way is before John 3:16, "And no one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven, even the Son of Man." John 6:38, "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My will, but the will of Him/God the Father who sent Me."
Please note that Jesus says the Father "SENT" Jesus. Now, look at Isaiah 6:9, where it says, "For a child will be born to us, a son will be given." If someone is sent or is given that means they already exist. You can't send somebody (for example) to the store if they don't already exist.
Now, I specifically wrote on this very subject explaining what is means to be the "Son of God?" Please read the following:
There's a lot of things going on even before Jesus ask the question at Matthew 16:13, "Who do people say the Son of Man is?" I'm going to work backwards in addressing your point. The Apostle John said at John 20:30-31, "Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book. Verse 31, But these have been written that you may believe THAT JESUS IS THE CHRIST THE SON OF GOD; and that believing you may have life in His name."
At Matthew 26 which is the trial record the following is what the high priest Caiaphas as Jesus to swear to at verse 63, "But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether YOU ARE THE CHRIST, THE SON OF GOD." According to Luke's account at Luke 22:70, Jesus says, "Yes, I am."
At John 19:7 (according to John's trial record) it says, "The Jews answered him, (that is Pilate), We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because HE MADE HIMSELF OUT THE SON OF GOD."
At John 10:30, Jesus said, "I and the Father, We are one." At verse 31, "The Jews took up stones AGAIN to stone Him." Why? Verse 33, "The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man MAKE YOURSELF OUT GOD." Notice that the Jews left out the word, "Son." The Jews understood what Jesus meant when He said He and His Father are One. That is they are one in nature and essence. This is why they accused Him of blasphemy. Jesus is not blaspheming if He and His Father are one in purpose. And of course they are but that is not what is meant here.
Jesus then "escalates" the conversation by quoting Psalm 82:6 by saying (verse 34) "Has it not been written in your Law, I said you are Gods?" Verse 35, If he called them gods to whom the word of God came(and the Scriptures cannot be broken), Vs36, do you say of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, "You are blaspheming, because I said I AM THE SON OF GOD."
So why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6? I believe what Jesus is doing is taking the Jew's statement about Him blaspheming to its logical conclusion. That is to show that the Jews are being inconsistent. In effect, Jesus is saying, "If you say that I am blaspheming, you must also hold that God is blaspheming because He said to those by whom the word of God came, "ye are gods." Jesus in fact draws a clear distinction between Himself and those by whom the word of God came when He says that He was sanctified and sent into the world by God.
I could bring in John 8:58 where the Jews picked up stones to stone Him for claiming to exist before Abraham was born and Jesus says, "I am." Instead I want to bring up John 5:17-18. "My Father is working until now, and I Myself am working. Vs18, For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God."
So what does it mean to call Jesus "the Son of God?" The following is what C.S Lewis said. "Jesus is the only begotten Son of God (John 3:160, while Christians are adopted sons of God (Romans 8:15-17). Christians are called adopted sons of God because we are different from God and must become His children (hence, adopted, not begotten). Jesus is not called adipted because He never became God's Son, but has always been God's Son. Calling Jesus the only begotten Son of God mean that He is of the same nature as God, not a different nature. To beget is to become the father of; to create is to make. And the difference is this. When you beget, you beget something of the same kind as yourself. A man begets human babies, a beaver begets little beavers..
But when you make, you make something of a different kind from yourself. A bird makes a nest, a beaver builds a dam...Now that is the first thing to make clear. What God begets is God; just as what man begets is man. What God creates is not God, just as what man makes is not man. That is why men are not Sons of God in the same sense that Christ is."
It is a universal law that a son shares the same nature as its father. Now, there is something else at work here. The Jews have "idioms." One of those "idioms" is know as the "son of" idiom. For example, the title "sons of the prophets" is used throughout 1 Kings 2: to declare and authenticate the fact that the "sons" were indeed real, honest-to-goodness prophets. the distinguishing nature that the "father" and the "sons" share here is the gift of "prophecy" which they alone had.
The "idiom" is throughout the Bible including the New Testament. Son of peace (Luke 10:6) refers to a peaceful person. Sons of thunder is at Mark 3:17. One more, "Son of perdition (John 17:12; 2 Thessalonians 2:3) is the lost one or son of hell. Judas and the antichrist fit the bill here.
You will also notice that Jesus Christ Himself oftentimes referred to Himself as "the Son of Man" and the "Son of God." The "Son of Man" idiom demonstrates the human nature of Jesus on His mother's side. I think we have gone full circle in demonstrating that the meaning of the "Son of God" in the case of Jesus Christ is not just a son of God like men or angels. A question I like to ask based on the trial of Jesus is: "Why would the Jews accuse Jesus of blasphemy for claiming to be the son of God when the Jews themselves claim to be sons of God?"