What is the difference between ‘rhema’ and ‘Logos’? Does the difference between these two words provide deeper understanding to the mystery of ‘the Word was made flesh (John 1:14)’ and ‘God was manifest in the flesh (1 Timothy 3:16).’?
I think the following explains it pretty good.
What Is a “Rhema”?
Scripture for personal application
Logos—The Word of God
There are two primary Greek words that describe Scripture which are translated word in the New Testament. The first, logos, refers principally to the total inspired Word of God and to Jesus, Who is the living Logos.
Biblical Examples of Logos
The following passages of Scripture give examples of the logos of God: •“In the beginning was the Word [logos], and the Word [logos] was with God, and the Word [logos] was God” (John 1:1). •“The seed is the word [logos] of God” (Luke 8:11). •“Holding forth the word [logos] of life” (Philippians 2:16). •“Study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word [logos] of truth” (II Timothy 2:15). •“For the word [logos] of God is quick, and powerful” (Hebrews 4:12). •“Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible, by the word [logos] of God, which liveth and abideth forever” (I Peter 1:23).
Rhema—The Spoken Word
The second primary Greek word that describes Scripture is rhema, which refers to a word that is spoken and means “an utterance.” A rhema is a verse or portion of Scripture that the Holy Spirit brings to our attention with application to a current situation or need for direction.
Every word of God is inspired, and “all scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness” (II Timothy 3:16). It is the Holy Spirit Who illuminates particular Scriptures for application in a daily walk with the Lord.
The above is taken from the following site: https://iblp.org/questions/what-rhema I also don't think the difference relfects a deeper or a "mystery" type of understanding. The two words have different definitions and I don't want to "read" anything into what they mean because their meaning is pretty straight forward as far as I'm concerned.
Whether there is a difference between rhema and logos as the "spoken word" or "thought" of a person cannot inform our view of John 1:1/14 because of the Greek syntax in which it is found.
At John 1:1 we have ην προς τον θεον.
Look at this preposition chart:
At 10:00 we have προς with an arrow facing the circle. It represents the word/Word facing and potentially moving towards God.
If it represented a word spoken by God or a thought of God it would be coming from God towards someone else.
Greek 101 prohibits the view that λόγος at John 1:1 is God's spoken word or his own thoughts. It's represented as facing him as from another person.