4

I was brought up short by reading this :

whom I have slain in mine anger and in my fury, and for all whose wickedness I have hid my face from this city. [Jeremiah 33:5 KJV]

It seemed that something was wrong with this sentence, to me. It seemed as though two clauses had been conflated.

Young has :

and `for' whom I have hidden My face from this city, because of all their evil:

Green gives us :

for whom I have hidden My face from this city, because of all their evil.

Is it just me or should the KJV actually read :

and for all for whose wickedness I have hid my face from this city ?

2

You seem to be reading "for all whose wickedness" as "for all [those] whose wickedness..." with "all" as a pronoun.

I think that the correct parsing of the clause is "for all the wickedness of whom," with "all" modifying "wickedness." If read this way, KJV is saying the same thing as the other translations, albeit with different syntax.

1
  • I can see it now. Thank you.
    – Nigel J
    Feb 13 '20 at 0:35
-2

Its just you. Everybody wants to change the bible for what ulterior motive i cant understand. What an obscure verse to argue over as well. Help keep our eyes and soul on jesus, not futhering a personal agenda to exult (or exonerate) ourselves. John spoke of being less while jesus should be greater.

1
  • 3
    I am interested in the correct translation of the Hebrew Masoretic text and in the correct translation of the Greek Received Text. Where it is incorrect, I want it corrected, in places such as Romans 5:11 where the KJV translates καταλλαγην, katallagen as 'atonement' - an appalling piece of mistranslation. Good as the KJV is, and valuable as it has been for over four hundred years, there are places in which correction is long overdue.
    – Nigel J
    Jan 12 '20 at 23:07

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