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Jesus used the phrase "Lord Lord" 5 times. Two are used in parables and two, which deal with final judgment at the close of the Sermon on the Mount and this use in Luke:

“Why do you call me ‘Lord, Lord,’ and not do what I tell you? (Luke 6:46) [ESV]

τί δέ με καλεῖτε κύριε κύριε καὶ οὐ ποιεῖτε ἃ λέγω [mGNT]

Since the word means "master" someone who calls a person "lord" should do what the master says. It seems odd to say a person would say "Lord Lord," and not do what they are told.

When Moses was told to go back to Egypt, he balked:

But Moses said to the LORD, “Oh, my Lord, I am not eloquent, either in the past or since you have spoken to your servant, but I am slow of speech and of tongue.” (Exodus 4:10)

Which in the LXX has a type of repetition of Lord:

And Moses said to the Lord, I pray, Lord, I have not been sufficient in former times, neither from the time that thou hast begun to speak to thy servant: I am weak in speech, and slow-tongued. (LXX)

εἶπεν δὲ Μωυσῆς πρὸς κύριον δέομαι κύριε οὐχ ἱκανός εἰμι πρὸ τῆς ἐχθὲς οὐδὲ πρὸ τῆς τρίτης ἡμέρας οὐδὲ ἀφ᾽ οὗ ἤρξω λαλεῗν τῷ θεράποντί σου ἰσχνόφωνος καὶ βραδύγλωσσος ἐγώ εἰμι

Does Jesus use the phrase "Lord Lord" in Luke as an allusion to Moses' reluctance to do what he was told?

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    "Said to the Lord" is not repetition, since it belongs to the narration, but "O Lord" to Moses' personal words. – Sola Gratia Dec 31 '19 at 19:28
  • @SolaGratia Does something need to be exact to be an allusion? I realize said to the Lord introduces what was said and in that case Lord would be said once. The preposition πρὸς shows to a direction. So the allusion would be "Moses said in the direction (of the burning bush), 'Lord I beg Lord...'" – Revelation Lad Dec 31 '19 at 19:47
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    pros doesn't mean in the direction here, it means "said unto" – Sola Gratia Dec 31 '19 at 20:51
  • It can be, although here it isn't directional when paired with "said" just as in English, "to" doesn't mean "to" as in the "on the way to" sense when used with "said." Besides, the direction Moses spoke in isn't in view here, as the conversation was already in progress and the place of the Lord known already. – Sola Gratia Dec 31 '19 at 21:31
  • I don’t believe that’s a good example. There are better examples in the OT and the Maccabees. The LXX is Lord Lord but the original in Hebrew is Lord God, or Lord (and) Creator. Deu 3:24 is an example, Amos 7:5 – Nihil Sine Deo Dec 31 '19 at 21:41
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Personally I don't see any connection of Luke 6:46 to Exodus 4:10. The Apostle Luke seems to like using a double vocative. Luke 8:24, "Master, Master." Luke 10:41, "Martha, Martha," Luke 13:34, "O Jerusalem, Jerusalem," Luke 22:31, "Simon, Simon." and Luke 23:21, "Crucify, crucify Him!"

You also said the following: " It seems odd to say a person would say "Lord Lord," and not do what they are told." Why would you think that is unusual? Look what Jesus said at Matthew 7:22-23. "Many will say to Me on that day, Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in Your name perform many miracles?" Verse 23, "And then I will declare to them, "I never knew you." To me these are the most "lethal" words in the Bible.

And as a side note if you read the verses that follow Exodus 4:10-17 you will see the Lord is a little "ticked" off with Moses. I think Moses had an "anxiety" attack and was worried about something he not only did not want to do but did not completely trust in the Lord. At Matthew 7:22-23 the end result of hypocritical disobedience leads to eternal consequences.

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  • While there are double vocatives I highly doubt that’s what Jesus is alluding to here. The LXX translates the Hebrew phrases “Lord God” as “Lord Lord” in the Greek. If anything Jesus was alluding to His divinity and it wasn’t Luke being wasteful with ink and parchment throwing in double vocatives. There’s very good reason to believe Jesus spoke Greek given the Greek city Sephorris – Nihil Sine Deo Jan 1 '20 at 4:19
  • Look, I merely observed that Luke seemed to like using "double vocatives" and I even backed it up with references. And no, he was not wasting ink?. Why the "snide" remark? After all that is said and done according to the complete context of Luke 6 is the following. Many hear Jesus' sayings and think of them as noble truths and uplifting not taking them to heart. The "rock" Jesus was referring to is the practice of "doing" His commands by obeying Him. The storms are not just storms of nature, but sin, temptation, sorrow and the cares of life. If you don't build on the rock there will be loss. – Mr. Bond Jan 1 '20 at 17:17

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