Song of Songs 6:12 (לא ידעתי נפשי שמתני מרכבות עמי־נדיב) is usually translated according to the following grammatical structure:
"I know not, my soul hath set me in chariots of my noble people."
But could it also be reasonably natural in Hebrew to interpret "my soul" as the object of the verb "to know/perceive", and "my noble people" as the subject of "hath set me"?
In other words, I wonder whether one can understand the sense of the sentence as being:
"Before I was even conscious of what was happening to me, my noble people had put me in chariots".
(Sorry if this is a very basic question, I've never learnt Hebrew.)