Why does the word "virgin" (Gk παρθένος; Heb בְּתוּלָה) exclusively refer to females in the Bible?

  • 2
    I don’t believe your premise is correct; Rev. 14:4 certainly appears to refer to male virgins. – Der Übermensch Dec 3 at 5:27
  • 3
    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because the premise is incorrect. – Nigel J Dec 3 at 8:17
  • Good catch. So, why only one mention of male virgins in entire Scripture. – Mike Harris Dec 4 at 6:03
  • @MikeHarris There are many other occasions when it could be argued that it is non-specific to male or female. – Nigel J Dec 4 at 16:44

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