2 Timothy 3:16
All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness.
To me the sentence is difficult to find the chronological order, because what I thought is something like this :
There is a writing.
Someone read that writing then try to conclude/decide whether it is useful for teaching/rebuking/correcting and training in righteousness or not.
If he/she doesn't find the writings is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, then he/she say "it's not inspired by God", hence the writing cannot be called a Scripture.
If he/she finds the writing is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, then he/she says "it's inspired by God", hence the writing cab be called a Scripture.
But it seems my chronological order above is not correct. I've read some sentences in this link like these :
Peter includes Paul’s epistles with the “other scriptures”
and this link
Already Peter refers to Paul’s letters as Scripture
2 Peter 3:15
Bear in mind that our Lord's patience means salvation, just as our dear brother Paul also wrote you with the wisdom that God gave him.
This leads me to a different conclusion:
The first thing is that Paul in the point of view of Peter is a man with God's wisdom. So then every Paul's writing to any church is Scripture, useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness.
In other words, Peter doesn't need to read any of Paul's letter to the church in order to decide/conclude whether Paul's letter is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness or not because God Himself told Peter that Paul is a man with His wisdom.
So, I'm in two options :
A. It's called Scripture (God breathed) because after reading the writing - the reader conclude that the writing is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness
B. It's Scripture (God breathed) because the writing is written by a man with God's wisdom.
Which one is the correct one ?
I hope there is an option C which is the answer.
Illustration:
Suppose there is Mr.Y being handed a letter by Mr.X ... and Mr.X said "this letter is Scripture (God breathed)". Mr.Y ask "why?"
Point-B is something like this :
Mr. X answer "because the writer is a holy man, he has God's wisdom".
Both Mr.X and Mr.Y doesn't know at all what are the sentences inside the letter (they don't need to read it), since the letter itself is Scripture (God breathed) because it's written by a holy man.
Point-A is something like this :
Mr. X answer "because I've read it, and I conclude that the letter is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness."
Here, to Mr.X the letter is Scripture (God breathed) after Mr. A read it, but not to Mr.B (yet).
Mr. Y reply "really ? let me read it first".
Only after Mr.B read the letter and if he get the same conclusion with Mr.A, then the letter is also Scripture (God breathed) to Mr. B. But if after reading it Mr.B doesn't have the same conclusion with Mr.A, then the letter is not Scripture (God breathed) to Mr. A