In Luke 18:36-37 [NASB]:
Now hearing a crowd going by, he began to inquire what this was. They told him that Jesus of Nazareth was passing by. And he called out, saying, "Jesus, Son of David, have mercy on me!"
Why is the blind man calling out "Son of David" instead of "Jesus of Nazareth", as told by the people in the previous verse?
We know that "Son of David" has a very long history, going back deep in the biblical past. And in both Hebrew and Christian context, it is conveying theological meaning. From a Christian outlook, isn't it a little bit to early, for using this title? From a Jewish outlook, is it appropriate, as the reply to the question was "Jesus of Nazareth"? Is this just a Matthew influence in Luke?