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For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. (KJV)
Why does it say "Scripture" and not "God"? How could the Scripture say anything to Pharaoh when the Scripture was not even written yet?
Paul's exact words are :
λεγει γαρ η γραφη τω φαραω [TR][Stephens, Beza, Elzevir and Scrivener identical]
Literally (very literally, see EGNT or Biblehub) :
Speaks for the script (nominative, feminine, singular noun) to Pharoah (dative, masculine singular). Biblehub.
Paul begins his sentence by stating that something was spoken. It was originally spoken by God.
And the Lord said unto Moses - Rise up early in the morning, and stand before Pharaoh, and say unto him . . . . . [Ex 9:13]
What was spoken to Moses (not written down, but spoken) included a statement (also not written down) to Pharaoh.
Thus saith the LORD God of the Hebrews, Let my people go, that they may serve me . . . . .. . . And in very deed for this cause have I raised thee up, for to shew in thee my power; and that my name may be declared throughout all the earth. [Ex 9:13 and 16, KJV.]
God spoke those words to Moses. Then Moses spoke those words. And Pharaoh heard them.
Later, they were recorded.
That writing still speaks. It is still God's speech.
What God has uttered never becomes silent.
His words never fall to the ground.
They echo round the world to this day.
This is true of all scripture that is given by inspiration of God. It is his word. He utters it and it never becomes silent. It echoes to every generation to those who have ears to hear it.
That which was written, spoke to Pharaoh.
That is to say :
That which was (later) written spoke to Pharaoh (before it was written).
Pharoah is representative of our unregenerated natural man/ hardened heart of ourselves. So the scripture is still saying to our 'Pharoah' today, as we read it, that God allows the consequences from that so that He can show his mighty power. Hardened heart brings about plagues. Until Repentance brings about letting his people go ( Isreal or our spirit child or our born again new creature)
What God said the Scripture says.
Notice the tense is present tense.
Paul seems to be emphasising the continuing testimony of the Scriptures as the present Word of God still speaking to Pharoah,... and to us...
In application of what Paul is saying, one could infer: For the scripture saith unto the hardened Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth. Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth. (Rom 9:17-18)
Rom 9:17: “For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh”?
Why does it say "Scripture" and not "God"? How could the Scripture say anything to Pharaoh when the Scripture was not even written yet?
Paul quotes from Exodus 9:16 and is part of the message God commanded Moses to say to Pharaoh of Egypt. Exodus 9:13-19
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus%209%3A13-19&version=NASB;NET;KJV
Paul personifies “the scripture,” writing as if the scripture itself spoke these words directly to Pharaoh. Paul uses a similar personification at Romans 3:19, where he says: “All the things the Law says, it addresses to those under the Law.” The use of this figure of speech in these contexts is appropriate because the Hebrew Scriptures, including the Law, were recognized as God’s word, in effect, God was speaking.
After doing some homework, this is what Keil and Delitzsch state: "The Scripture of truth" is the book in which God has designated beforehand, according to truth, the history of the world as it shall certainly unfold; (Psalms 139:16, Revelation 5:1).
I also like what Albert Barnes says: "They are described as written down in a book that is in the hands of God, in which are recorded all future events - the names of those that shall be saved - and all the deeds of men. Compare Deuteronomy 32:34; Malachi 3:16; Psalm 139:16; Revelation 5:1. The representation is figurative, of course; and the meaning is, that, in the view of the Divine mind, all future events are as certain as if they were actually recorded as history, or as if they were now all written down. The angel came that he might unfold a portion of that volume, and disclose the contents of its secret pages; that is, describe an important series of events of great interest to the Jewish people and to the world at large."
And btw, to answer the question as to why it says, "Scripture" and not God is because the Apostle Paul understands that it was God dealing with Pharaoh. Look at Paul's conclusion at vs18, "So then He/God has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires."
