Rom 8:31 (NKJV) What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us?
Does the Greek text allow for this translation?
What then shall we say to these things if God is for us? “Who can be against us?”
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Paul poses a question at the start of this argument :
What shall we then say to these things ? Romans 8:31.
It is similar to the way he begins chapter 7 :
What shall we then say ? Romans 7:1
And similar to the beginning of chapter 6:
What shall we then say ? Romans 61
And also similar to Romans 3:9 :
What then ?
It is clear that Paul is progressively asking the question 'What follows what we have just learned ? in each case. He reaches a place in his argument which paves the way for substantial conclusions. So he asks 'Where are we then ?' 'What now follows ?'
If the proscribed punctuation in the question is followed, it disturbs the cumulative flow of the epistle and the building steps of logical argument.
And the meaning of the text is altered.
In the altered punctuation, an assumption is made that God is, definitely 'for us'.
This is contrary to the tentative, logical, progressive structure of Romans. Having concluded this, what then ? If this be so, what follows ?
And, thirdly, what follows the constructive question 'What shall we say then ?' is a couplet, a well balanced couplet.
If this, then that.
So , my answer is No. The added quotation marks are not in keeping.
It is grammatically possible, but linguistically it is highly unlikely and not in keeping with the rest of Paul's epistle.