In Mark 1:8, Matthew 3:11, Luke 3:16, and John 1:33, John the Baptist declares that Jesus will baptize people in the Holy Spirit.
For example, Matthew 3:11 says,
“I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance, but He who is coming after me is mightier than I, whose sandals I am not worthy to carry. He will baptize you with the Holy Spirit and fire.” (Matthew 3:11, NKJV)
However, the Greek says
“Ἐγὼ μὲν ὑμᾶς βαπτίζω ἐν ὕδατι εἰς μετάνοιαν· ὁ δὲ ὀπίσω μου ἐρχόμενος ἰσχυρότερός μού ἐστιν, οὗ οὐκ εἰμὶ ἱκανὸς τὰ ὑποδήματα βαστάσαι· αὐτὸς ὑμᾶς βαπτίσει ἐν πνεύματι ἁγίῳ καὶ πυρί·” (Matthew 3:11, SBLGNT)
Likewise, the other passages all refer to the Holy Spirit without the article. What's to keep this passage from being translated:
"...He will baptize you with holy wind and fire"
It seems to me that, all things equal, it ought to be translated as "holy wind [a metaphorical/spiritual object] and fire [a metaphorical/spiritual object]" since that would be more parallel than, "the Holy Spirit [a person] and fire [a metaphorical object]" Is there any reason that this is translated as "the Holy Spirit" rather than "holy wind" or "holy breath"?