I noticed that the KJV gives Isaiah 38:17 as :
... thou hast in love to my soul delivered it from the pit of corruption ... [KJV]
in which the addition, in italics, changes the meaning considerably. In the margin of the KJV is the following :
[Heb.] thou hast loved my soul from the pit ... [KJV margin]
with which Green's Literal appears to agree :
... You loved my soul from the pit of destruction ... [GIB]
However Robert Young gives a completely different rendering from either of the above, as follows :
... thou hast delighted in my soul without corruption ... [YLT]
in which he employs no italics at all.
I can understand why the KJV margin and Green's translation could well be the real meaning, regarding the descent of Messiah into sheol :
For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell (sheol); neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption [Psalm 16:10, KJV]
Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth ? [Ephesians 4:9, KJV.]
But I would like to see the text of Isaiah 38:17 confirmed before drawing the inference.
Can anyone shed light on this passage from the original Hebrew ?