The verse is clearly about widows but I am most concerned with the hermeneutics of the phrase “only in the Lord”; considering Apostle Paul did not say for instance, only with another believer or disciple. Nor did he say with someone from the church, nor did he qualify it to mean a person who is baptized with the Holy Spirit or baptized in water. He specifically was inspired to use this expression. What does it mean exactly and does it have any OT or Hebrew holdover?
“A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.” 1 Corinthians 7:39