Proverbs 26:4 (KJV) says,
Answer not a fool according to his folly, lest thou also be like unto him.
The very next verse, verse 5, says,
Answer a fool according to his folly, lest he be wise in his own conceit.
To answer or not to answer?
This seeming contradiction has me scratching my head. I wonder if this is a translation issue. I've looked it up in the YLT and a handful of other translations and they all say the same thing.
The Brenton Septuagint adds "Yet" to the beginning of verse 5, which might mean something, but I'm not sure what.
I'm very interested in seeing if someone has some insight into this quandary.