In John 11:2 why did John reference Mary anointing Jesus’ feet before this occurred in chapter 12?
It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was ill. (John 11:2, ESV)
John obviously expected his readers to already be familiar with this account before reading later about the account. Either 1) the readers were familiar with this account because the Synoptic Gospels were already written, or 2) this account was already widely known through oral tradition. Is there other evidence within the Gospel of John that would more clearly indicate that the Synoptic Gospels were already written.