The consensus answer to that previous question was that Jesus did not literally enter a literal temple in heaven and sprinkle His Holy blood there. But the larger context is a comparison between two Covenants and two means of atonement, one temporary and one eternal. In the first, the blood not only had to be shed, it had to be sprinkled. Why would sprinkling be eliminated in the second?
Hebrews 9:11 states the heavenly temple is not made with human hands, which implies that it was made. There is a literal temple in a literal heaven. The whole purpose of a temple is an altar and the whole purpose of an altar is a sprinkling.
So I ask: "What about the larger context?" I worry the prior discussion could not see the forest for the trees.