Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end. The Hebrew New Testament (Bible Society of Israel) has הַשִּׁלּוֹחַ (apparently qal passive participle) with no ending m sound from the Hebrew verb שָׁלַח (Aramaic שְׁלַח) meaning send. The Peshitta has the same, ܫܝܠܘܚܐ. The is perhaps the pool mentioned in Neh. 3:15 as הַשֶּׁ֙לַח֙.
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3Not quite sure, but notably, Josephus employs the indeclinable Σιλωὰμ and various declensions of Σιλωά. – Der Übermensch Jun 15 '19 at 5:16
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1I have noticed that the endings of proper nouns varies a little from language to language - look at the names of the seven churches and many others - all a little different at the end - should it be Pergamos or Pergamum? – user25930 Jun 15 '19 at 6:37
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1I expect it's related to an earlier Q&A, but you were active in that one already. Have you had a look at the literature cited there? The Thackeray and B-D-F links might shed some light on your question, but it would even be worth confirming if they don't. FWIW! – Dɑvïd Jun 15 '19 at 17:24
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@PerryWebb Cf. *this* – Sola Gratia Jun 16 '19 at 21:24
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If it helps the μ shows up even on Codex Sinaiticus. – Decrypted Jun 19 '19 at 4:29
