What does "no one" and "God" refer to in

John 1:18 No one has ever seen God; the only God, who is at the Father’s side, he has made him known. ( ESV )


The interlinear bible says No one means no one, none, nothing.

and "God" I believe is the Father.

So does not "no one" include angels?

But Jesus said in

Matthew 18:10“See that you do not despise one of these little ones. For I tell you that in heaven their angels always see the face of my Father who is in heaven. ( ESV )

So what is Jesus meaning here? Two possibilities that come to my mind are:

  1. No man ( including Adam & Eve ) has ever seen the Father
  2. No created being has ever seen the Father in the same way/level/detail/intensity the Son has seen the Father
  • No one has seen God. Some have seen the Son and the Spirit; the Son has seen the Father. But no one has seen God (Father-Son-Spirit) May 29 '19 at 17:55
  • Thank you @RevelationLand Who has seen the Spirit? May 30 '19 at 3:44
  • 1
    John the Baptist said he saw the Spirit (John 1:32) May 30 '19 at 3:51
  • @RevelationLand, What about Ezekiel ( Ezekiel 1:27 )? May 30 '19 at 3:54
  • 1
    There are probably several others. The point is not all 3 at the same time. IMO the Trinity is the best explanation for what is stated. May 30 '19 at 3:58

"No one" means no man had seen the Father. When it is left in context of the time and place in which John the Immerser, a man, gave testimony of Yeshua (Jesus) who was "in the world" (vs. 10) manifested as a man, then the definition is restricted to no one of this world. "In the world" gives the place... the world of men. John the Immerser spoke to the priests and Levites who were sent out to ask who John was...men asking of a man.

John 1:18 is translated as "No man hath seen God..." in the ASV, the GNV, as well as the KJV, the AKJV, and a few others.

It is not speaking of the messengers (angels) that are in heaven, only of men that are in the world.

The time was while John was immersing (baptizing) at the river, before Jesus had come to be immersed....before Jesus' crucifixion, and before Jesus' ascension.

As Jesus was the first to rise from the dead, the first fruit of the resurrection (Acts 26:23; 1 Cor. 15:20), then no man had ascended to the Father before Jesus had. So no man had seen God before Jesus was crucified and before He had ascended in Acts 1:9.

When we put everything in context, in the proper time and place, the implications are very revealing. As no man (no one) had ascended to the Father before Yeshua, then the so-called Book of Enoch is a lie!

Further discussion of these points is available at my blog ShreddingTheVeil, specifically the posts "Frequent Mistakes - Part VII: The Translation of Enoch and Elijah" here, as well as "The Book of Enoch: Fable or True" here, "Nephilim - Fallen Ones?" here, and "Nephilim...Reprise: And The Sons of God" here.

  • Thank you @Gina, Whom did Adam see in the garden? May 30 '19 at 3:33
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    @Siju George - Might it have been Jesus that Adam talked with in Eden?
    – user25930
    Jun 5 '19 at 11:53

Concerning seeing God (the Father), some passages say "no one" while others say "no man". Logically, we conclude that "no one" specifically means "no man". But in Ex 33:18-23, God tells Moses that "no man can see my FACE and live." And then, God showed Moses His back. Logically, this HAS to be God the Father speaking to Moses, not Jesus. If this were the pre-existent Jesus, then we must conclude that no man can see Jesus' FACE, and live, and the most that anyone has ever seen of Jesus is his back. Are we going to go down that road?

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