In reading the New Testament Epistles the words rooted in ακαθαρτ translated 'unclean' in the KJV are listed among sinful actions:
Ephesians 5:5 For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean person (ακαθαρτος), nor covetous man, who is an idolater, hath any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God.
The words deriving from ακαθαρ are used through out the Pentateuch in the LXX, in regards to various forms of sanctification required by YHWH upon his covenant people, such as:
(Brenton LXX) Leviticus 11:46-47 This is the law concerning beasts and birds and every living creature moving in the water, and every living creature creeping on the earth; to distinguish between the unclean (ακαθαρτων) and the clean; and between those that bring forth alive, such as should be eaten, and those that bring forth alive, such as should not be eaten.
Is there any Evidence to not believe Paul and other NT writers are not referring to the same 'uncleanness' as Moses in the Pentateuch?
It is obvious that the Hebrew word טמא used in the Torah was understood as ακαθαρτων by the translators of the LXX, would this not be the correct way to understand Paul by a proper biblical hermeneutic?
Simply: Is Paul speaking of prior biblically defined 'uncleanness'? If not what evidence turns the meaning from what Moses by God's word had prior stated?