There's is an example of Jesus speaking in parables and his disciples ask him why he is speaking in parables, and Jesus says it is to fulfill a particular scripture (Matthew 13:10-17, Isaiah 6:9-10).

In Mark 5:42, Luke 8:56, and Matthew 9:25 give accounts of Jesus asking for the miracle of the Jairus' daughter being raised from the dead to be kept secret. In my own understanding it does not seem that something like this would be kept a secret very long. Why would Jesus say this if it wasn't going to really do anything?

Was Jesus fulfilling any Old Testament scriptures by asking the miracle to be kept secret?

3 Answers 3


When Jesus asked for a miracle to be kept secret, was he fulfilling any specific scriptures?

His humble approach fulfilled the prophetic words of Isaiah.

Isaiah 42:1-2 (NASB)

God’s Promise concerning His Servant.

42 “Behold, My Servant, whom I uphold; My chosen one in whom My soul delights. I have put My Spirit upon Him; He will bring forth justice to the nations. 2 “He will not cry out or raise His voice, Nor make His voice heard in the street.

Obviously Jesus did not want to magnify his name, or create sensational reports about his miracles, that would draw attention away from God and his preaching of the good news of the Kingdom of God. Further ,apparently Jesus wanted to convince people that he was the Christ, the Messiah himself , and not from rumors based on his miracles.

Luke 4:43 (NRSV)

43" But he said to them, “I must proclaim the good news of the kingdom of God to the other cities also; for I was sent for this purpose.”


Apparently, yes: Matthew 12:15-21 KJV quoting Isaiah 42:1-7.

But when Jesus knew it, he withdrew himself from thence: and great multitudes followed him, and he healed them all; And charged them that they should not make him known: That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, Behold my servant, whom I have chosen; my beloved, in whom my soul is well pleased: I will put my spirit upon him, and he shall shew judgment to the Gentiles. He shall not strive, nor cry; neither shall any man hear his voice in the streets. A bruised reed shall he not break, and smoking flax shall he not quench, till he send forth judgment unto victory. And in his name shall the Gentiles trust.

  • The question was a yes or no question. It received a yes or no answer.
    – user21676
    Commented May 16, 2019 at 19:09
  • This does not answer the question. The Bible texts you quoted only provide a fulfilment for Jesus' healing ministry - Isa 42 does NOT provide any precedent for Jesus' request for silence.
    – user25930
    Commented May 16, 2019 at 22:33
  • Mac go read Matthew 12:15-17 - KJV. Also, there is no need for explanation, the author himself has stated the reason for such 'secrecy'. Anything else also would pretty much be speculation in light of what Matthew himself states here, in my opinion.
    – user21676
    Commented May 17, 2019 at 0:07
  • I mean at quick glance, I see also John 2:23-25, as related, though this is not necessarily a prophetic reason.
    – user21676
    Commented May 17, 2019 at 0:33
  • Quite right - we are not told some things. Therefore, what we are not told is often (not always) fruitless speculation.
    – user25930
    Commented May 17, 2019 at 1:15

The 4 gospels are 4 different books with 4 different agendas. You can't ask why did Jesus do something in Matthew and Luke because the 2 gospels are different. They have a different theology and Christology. They are different accounts. Matthew is directed at Jews, not gentiles. Luke is directed at gentiles. Consider their birth narratives; entirely different! You can't force the Magi into the stable with the manger. You can't back up something that happened in Luke by referencing Matthew.

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