What is the meaning of the phrase 'only true God' in John 17:3?
Jesus in his prayer to his heavenly Father for the sake of the sheep , not only shows the oneness that exist between him and God, but also does not speak of himself as God, but says to his Father.
John 17:3-6 (NASB)
3" This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God,
and Jesus Christ whom You have sent. 4 I glorified You on the earth,
[a]having accomplished the work which You have given Me to do. 5 Now,
Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had
with You before the world was.6 “I have manifested Your name to the
men whom You gave Me out of the world; they were Yours and You gave
them to Me, and they have kept Your word."(Compare John 17: 20-24)
Notice, (Verse 6) who was it that gave men out of this world to Jesus?
When Jesus said that his Father “the only true God” gave him disciples out of this world, Jesus did not mean that he as God gave himself something. Jesus spoke of all his disciples, not as a gift made by himself to himself, but as a gift made to him by the “only true God,” his heavenly Father.
John 1:1
John 1:1 Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]
ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Many translate John 1:1 as follows:
John 1:1 (NASB, NRSV)
1" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the
Word was God."
Others translate it as follows:
Translations by James Moffatt, Edgar J. Goodspeed and Hugh J. Schonfield render part of the verse as "...the Word [Logos] was divine". (Source:Wikipedia)
James Moffatt New testament of John 1:1
1 "THE Logos existed in the very beginning, the Logos was with God,
the Logos was divine.
The following is from the book "The Four Gospels Harmonized and Translated", by Count Leo Tolstoy, as follows:
If it says that in the beginning was the comprehension, or word, and that the word was to God, or with God, or for God, it is impossible to go on and say that it was God. If it was God, it could stand in no relation to God.*
In view of Revelation 19:13, what must John 1:1 mean, at most, regarding the Word?
John proves that the Word who was with God “was made flesh” and became Jesus Christ and that Jesus Christ was “the Son of God.” So it would be proper to say that the Word was the Son of God. For anyone to say that the Word was God, “the only true God,” would be contrary to what the apostle John proves by the rest of his writings.
In the last book of the Bible, namely, in Revelation 19:13, John calls him “The Word of God,” saying: “And his name is called The Word of God.” (NASB, NRSV)) Note that his name is not called “God the Word,” but is called “The Word of God,” or God’s Word. Hence John 1:1 must mean, at most, that the Word was of God.
John 1:18
John 1:18 Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants] θεὸν οὐδεὶς
ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος
ἐξηγήσατο.
John call the "the only begotten god"who is in the intimate presence of the Father, because he is given power and authority from the almighty God , the Father: Read below Mat.28:18, 1 Cor. 8:6, Heb 1:2
John 1:18 Amplified Bible (AMP)
18 "No one has seen God [His essence, His divine nature] at any time;
the [One and] only begotten God [that is, the unique Son] who is in
the intimate presence of the Father, He has explained Him [and
interpreted and revealed the awesome wonder of the Father]."
Matthew 28:18 (NASB)
**> " And Jesus came up and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been
given to Me in heaven and on earth."**
1 Corinthians 8:6 Amplified Bible (AMP)
"Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, who is the source of all
things, and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are
all things [that have been created], and we [believers exist and have
life and have been redeemed] through Him."
Paul says that God spoke to their forefathers by means of the prophets and now he has spoken to them by means of his Son . Hence Jesus cannot be God.( Heb.1:1-2)
Hebrews 1:1-22 (NRSV)
God Has Spoken by His Son
1 "Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the
prophets, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom
he appointed heir of all things, through whom he also created the
worlds."
John 10:33-34 NASB
For clearer understanding why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus and Jesus reply I have quoted from verses 31-39 , you will notice that the Jews falsley accused Jesus of making himself "God". If Jesus did claim to be God, it would have been a blasphemy and the Jews were right to stone him. However Jesus claimed that he was the Son of God and to prove this, he replied from the Psalm 82:6 “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?{human judges representing God, not divine beings }
John 10:31-39 New American Standard Bible (NASB)
31 "The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered
them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them
are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “For a good work we do
not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make
Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been
written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?"
35 "If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the
Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father
sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I
said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37 If I do not do the works of My Father,
do not believe Me; 38 but if I do them, though you do not believe Me,
believe the works, so that you may [a]know and understand that the
Father is in Me, and I in the Father.” 39 Therefore they were seeking
again to seize Him, and He eluded their grasp.
John 20:28 (NASB)
28 "Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!”
Some view the expression of astonishment as directed to Jesus, whilst others says that although spoken to Jesus it was actually directed to God. Therefore the intention of the expression “my Lord and my God” should be best understood in harmony with the rest of the Scriptures.
Thomas heard Jesus prayer to his Father calling him the "only true God", (17:3) so there is no reason for Thomas to believe that Jesus was the Almighty God.
Thomas also heard "Peter's confession to Christ", “You are the Messiah,the Son of the living God.”
Matthew 16:15-17 (NRSV)
15 "He said to them, “But who do you say that I am?” 16 Simon Peter
answered, “You are the Messiah,the Son of the living God.” 17 And
Jesus answered him, “Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah! For flesh
and blood has not revealed this to you, but my Father in heaven."
Thomas was also present when Jesus "Foretold his death and resurrection"
21" From that time on, Jesus began to show his disciples that he must
go to Jerusalem and undergo great suffering at the hands of the elders
and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and on the third day be
raised. 22 And Peter took him aside and began to rebuke him, saying,
“God forbid it, Lord! This must never happen to you.” 23 But he turned
and said to Peter, “Get behind me, Satan! You are a stumbling
block to me; for you are setting your mind not on divine things but on
human things.”
If we are to interpret the expression as being directed to Jesus, as being the Almighty God,then we have to say that Peter is Satan, we certainly know that this is not so, therefore John 20:28 should be understood in tha same manner, and in harmony with the scriptures.