Why leave out tous in greek before all of us and so distort the meaning of 2 corinthians 5? [closed]

Question

Hidden manna

UPDATE - THE WORD TRANSLATED RECOMPENSE MEANS TO PROVIDE FOR

There are Lying translations IN ALL BIBLES DONE BY THE VATICAN ANTICHRIST

GOD SHOWED ME AND CORRECTED 2 corinthians 5-10 ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Β΄ 5:10 Greek NT: Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 τοὺς γὰρ πάντας ἡμᾶς φανερωθῆναι δεῖ ἔμπροσθεν τοῦ βήματος τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἵνα κομίσηται ἕκαστος τὰ διὰ τοῦ σώματος πρὸς ἃ ἔπραξεν εἴτε ἀγαθὸν εἴτε κακόν The true reading is

ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil.

He by dying for us all Provided for every one the things done in the body wether good or evil https://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/2865.htm

They lied and instead wrote ( leaving out the first word ONE entirely! And adding (of) christ when it is THE christ. and moving the word meaning behoves ( necessary) to be before the judgment seat instead of after bema , and not telling us the word recompense can mean to provide for

AND SO CORRUPTED THE MEANING Having it read as follows

For all of us must appear before the judgment seat of christ To be paid back ( recompensed) for all the things done in the body wether good or evil

They left ONE blank!! https://biblehub.com/text/2_corinthians/5-10.htm

TOUS can mean one or he ONE https://biblehub.com/strongs/greek/3588.htm

ΠΡΟΣ ΚΟΡΙΝΘΙΟΥΣ Β΄ 5:10 Greek NT: Stephanus Textus Receptus 1550 τοὺς γὰρ πάντας ἡμᾶς φανερωθῆναι δεῖ ἔμπροσθεν τοῦ βήματος τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἵνα κομίσηται ἕκαστος τὰ διὰ τοῦ σώματος πρὸς ἃ ἔπραξεν εἴτε ἀγαθὸν εἴτε κακόν

The below verse is Pauls agument given to him by revelation through the spirit of christ showing what God has done in christ justly justifying the one who believes Jesus is the son of God

If by the spirit you put to death the things done in the body you shall live

He by the eternal spirit gave himself up once for all The rightious for the unrightious The just for the unjust God in christ Justifying all through and by faith in christ He died so Those who believe in him and are so are in his new covenant in his body and blood, he died (was lifted up ) so those who believe in him May have eternal life. In him we have redemption the forgiveness of sins . He who believes in him is not judged. Yet this being true and even with the word bema means judgment seat Nobody looked to see how they had for the last 500 years got away with lying against the truth. The only ones possible to have done this is the vatican the great city she sits on many tongues/ languages and rules over the kings of the earth and so had access to infiltrate government academia and corrupt bible translation committees with the lying pen of the scribes.

Tous one he the, this, that, one, he, she, it Including the feminine he (hay), and the neuter to (to) in all their inflections; the definite article; the (sometimes to be supplied, at others omitted, in English idiom) -- the, this, that, one, he, she, it, etc.

Again the word that can mean the definite article THE is ommitted but this time replaced with a word not in the manuscript OF So at to read "of Christ " now this introduction of a word not written down by the apostle was to make sense of the whole idea of the bema seat being spoken of as being a place where christ judges those who believe in him whom clearly in John said SHALL NOT BE JUDGED MEANING SHALL NOT EVER BE JUDGED.

But this is achieved by a lie adding a word not in the original manuscript in greek that was inspired. So by lying they add an unspired word OF all for an agenda which contradicts Christs own word of no judgment for those who believe in him.

In answer to the strange comments below

One for all of us

ἡμᾶς (hēmas) — 167 Occurrences Matthew 6:13 PPro-A1P GRK: μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν INT: not lead us into temptation

Matthew 6:13 PPro-A1P GRK: ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ INT: but deliver us from

Matthew 8:29 PPro-A1P GRK: καιροῦ βασανίσαι ἡμᾶς INT: time to torment us

One for all of us

appeared φανερωθῆναι (phanerōthēnai)

Verb - Aorist * Infinitive Passive Strong's Greek 5319: To make clear (visible, manifest), make known. From phaneros; to render apparent

AORIST * tenses describe actions of the PAST TENSE The AORIST tense always conveys a single, discreet action

Aorist: I walked snapshot of a past action

https://ancientgreek.pressbooks.com/chapter/31/

The verse previous is wrongly translated by vaticans' dragon serving liars also For Pauls says not that we strive and work hard to please him For only by faith in Jesus can we please God not by works striving to be approved For the verse says

Therefore also we are dearly loved and honoured precious to him at home or away from the body well pleasing him be

But the lying false translation says

φιλοτιμούμεθα (philotimoumetha) — 1 Occurrence 2 Corinthians 5:9 V-PIM/P-1P GRK: διὸ καὶ φιλοτιμούμεθα εἴτε ἐνδημοῦντες NAS: we also have as our ambition, whether KJV: Wherefore we labour, that, whether INT: Therefore also we are ambitious whether being at home

For by faith only one pleases God not by striving to please but by grace through a gift of faith, so the one good work is to believe in the one God sent.

5389 philotiméomai (from 5384 /phílos, "lover, friend" and 5092/timḗ, "acknowledged honor")

philos: beloved, dear, friendly Original Word: φίλος, η, ον Part of Speech: Adjective; Indeclinable Numeral (Adjective) Transliteration: philos Phonetic Spelling: (fee'-los) Definition: beloved, dear, friendly Usage: friendly; subst: a friend, an associate.

And

Of high preciousness valued

5092 timḗ (from tiō, "accord honor, pay respect") – properly, perceived value; worth (literally, "price") especially as perceived honor – i.e. what has value in the eyes of the beholder; (figuratively) the value (weight, honor) willingly assigned to something.

Wether at home in the body or away from it we are pleasing ( to) him be Not because of our works and striving to become a beloved loved friend highly honoured precious and well pleasing to him but because of his love towards us making us acceptable in the beloved pleasing to him in the beloved is the sense One ( or he ) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as must as was neccesary the christ to provide for all ( the world) for the sake of the body ( the church) for the things continually done wether good or bad.

Good meaning dead works of law ( the law being holy good and true) and bad meaning sins. Now a rightiousness from God has been revealed apart from deeds of the law A rightiousness that is by faith in Jesus christ from first to last. Not by deeds not of ourseleves but a gift by grace theough faith in the only rightious one Jesus the Son of God.

How much more shall the blood of christ cleanse our consciences from dead works?( dead deeds/ works of law)

He who believes is not judged but what then is this judgment seat of christ therefore invented by false translation of the word of God?

A judgment of those who believe? It is not true at all!

Holding to the truth is what he commends those faithful for He who believes shall not be judged is what Jesus said

So as those who believe in him as he says are Not judged They are not to be judged for deeds done wether good or evil For then you would be being judged for sins! For surely evil deeds are sin?

And also seeing as Jesus THE christ is the atoning sacrifice for our sins but not for our sins only but for the sins of the whole world, then if unberlievers (who are guilty of sin indeed because they do not believe Jesus is the son of God ) were judged to condemnation for their sins then how could they be blessed in the last judgment and given entry into the kingdom based upon their deeds?

For this saying is trustworthy and true That God is the saviour of all men but especially of those who believe ( that Jesus christ is the son of God)

So, Denying his word by false translations of his word is not a faithful work.

Paul rebuking the church said By now many of you should be teachers!

Like John who was a teacher and like Paul an apostle himself Who said You have no need for any man to be your teacher For you all have an anointing from the holy one and know all things. How i wish the church taught the truth! And how much Jesus wishes for them to repent unto acknowledgement of the truth.

Jesus said he who loves me shall guard my word. For at least and before 500 years who has guarded it?

People are lying saying the aorist tense is not only past tense as if it could ever be future tense but indeed IT IS GREEK PAST TENSE!!

While both the IMPERFECT and AORIST tenses refer to past actions, and so are past tenses, they differ in ASPECT. The AORIST tense always conveys a single, discreet action (i.e. simple aspect). This is the most common tense for referring to action in the past. The IMPERFECT tense always conveys past activity that was more than a single action in some way (i.e. ongoing aspect). Aorist: I walked snapshot of a past action (simple aspect) Imperfect: I was walking/ used to walk video of past action (ongoing aspect)

ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil.

He Therefore , Pilate, having heard these words, brought he Jesus out and sat down upon the judgment seat at a place called The Stone Pavement, and in Hebrew, Gabbatha https://biblehub.com/john/19-13.htm

τοὺς γὰρ πάντας ἡμᾶς φανερωθῆναι δεῖ

tous gar Pantos Hemas phanerōthēnai dei

He for all us Appeared as behoved

ἔμπροσθεν τοῦ βήματος τοῦ Χριστοῦ

emprosthen tou bēmatos tou Christou

Before the Judgment seat the Christ

ἵνα κομίσηται ἕκαστος

hina komisētai hekastos

that Having bore carried off & provided for Every one

διὰ τοῦ σώματος πρὸς

dia tou sōmatos pros

For the sake of the Body In light of (advantageous for)

ἃ ἔπραξεν εἴτε ἀγαθὸν

ha epraxen eite

That Continually done If and both

Agathon good

εἴτε φαῦλον.

eite phaulon

If and both evil.

Answer 1

I am assuming for the purpose of the forum that your question is does this translation of 2 Cor 5:10 fit what is found in the original Greek:

ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil.

One other initial point before looking at your translation. I have taken 11 semesters of Biblical Greek at the Bachelors, Masters, and Doctoral level on my way towards being a PhD candidate in Biblical Studies with a Greek New Testament emphasis. The Greek text I am using for my Doctoral Dissertation is Robinson's Byzantine Majority text which combines elements of the Textus Receptus with the majority text view.

One other issue, is this a textual issue as your translation seems to imply? Actually it is not a textual issue at all, all of the versions of the Textus Receptus, as well as the Critical texts include the article Τοὺς. There is a textual variant in 2 Cor. 5:10. In the UBS text the verse ends with the word κακόν (bad) is replaced with the word φαῦλον. There are only four manuscripts that contain φαῦλον, with Codex C and Codex Sinaticus being the two main ones. The apparatus (which manuscripts and which church Fathers have a particular reading) shows the main support for φαῦλον being from a long list of Church Fathers. There was a long list of manuscripts, including Vaticanus, that has the reading κακόν (bad). I suspect that φαῦλον (worthless) entered in because it fits the ideas of 2 Cor. 5:10 better than κακόν. Yet I would hold that κακόν is actually the original reading.

On to your translation:

ONE ( tous) for all of us appeared before the judgment seat as neccesary THE christ that provided for all ( everyone) for the sake of the body( believers) For all deeds habitually done Wether good or evil.

You have made some basic mistakes in Greek with your translation:

1. Τοὺς is an article, in English we would say "the." Even if it were something other than the word "the" it is in the plural. It would defy basic Greek grammar to render a plural article as "one."
2. You have translated the infinitive φανερωθῆναι (to be made manifest, or to appear) in the past tense. It is in the aorist tense, which may be an indicator of a completed action but it has a many other uses as well. David Alan Black states that the tense of Greek infinitives "is not one of time but rather one of kind of action." Black goes on to suggest that "The aorist infinitive is the least marked form and is used to refer to an action without defining its nature or extent." Black also suggested that "in general, the aorist infinitive was used by the New Testament writers unless some reason existed for using the present or perfect." The aorist is needed here because Paul defines the nature of the "appearance" by the rest of the sentence. The aorist here does not indicate that the appearance already occurred.

From the comments some addition information about the aorist in general as well as the aorist infinitive is needed. Wallace states that in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics that "the aorist usually indicates past time with reference to the time of speaking." He then goes on to state that aorist participles suggest antecedent time relative to the main verb. This led him to state the following: "Outside the indicative and participle, time is not a feature of the aorist." This fits with the comments above about aorist infinitives not being marked. They have aspect but not time. Ignoring the infinitive for a moment, Wallace lists seven types of aorists including "the proleptic (futuristic) aorist." In this form of the aorist the action is future, but the certainty of the action is such that it is as if the action had already occurred. Romans 8:30 states that believers are glorified, which is in the aorist tense. Glorification is in the future but Paul uses the aorist to convey the certainty of the action to give his readers assurance of their future. The original post and the comments all insist the aorist is always past tense. While the impact is debated by Greek scholars, Buist Fanning, McKay, and Douglas Huffman have all written major works arguing that Greek verbs do not indicate time, instead arguing for the degree to which the action is completed or will be completed in the future. It is called Greek aspect theory and it certainly never argues the aorist is always past tense completed action.

3. You translated the verb δεῖ (an active indicative verb) as a simile, adding the word "as" -- "as necessary." You make a phrase of a simile by adding the word as to a noun, not to a verb. The verb δεῖ is almost always translated as "must" or "ought" in the KJV, with the context being the factor that determines the usage. A.T. Robertson in his massive Greek Grammar suggests that δεῖ will almost always be in the third person singular active indicative, and it certainly is that way in 66 verses of the New Testament. That means the singular in this case is tied to the common use of that verb and it does not indicate "how many must."
4. The question "how many must appear?" is the crux of the issue. The number is given in the opening phrase, not in the verb. The opening phrase is Τοὺς γὰρ πάντας ἡμᾶς. To support your notion that only Christ appeared before a judgment seat you would have to ignore the fact that every word in the opening phrase is in the plural except γὰρ, which does not take a number. Although it is debated, the article Τοὺς modifies the adjective πάντας (all). Robertson and Blass in their grammars suggest that it is the rule that πάντας will always have an article. Your argument is completely undermined by the inclusion of the pronoun ἡμᾶς -- we. Whoever is represented by "we" are the ones who must appear. If it had only been Christ then the pronoun is completely out of place. Incidentally, if Paul intended "one" he used the term ἑνὸς in a context similar to what you wrongly attempt to suggest here in 2 Cor. 5:10. In Romans 5 Paul contrasts the one act of Adam with the one act of Christ in saving us. There he used ἑνὸς to explicitly declare "one."
5. Now if Paul intended to say "for everyone must appear" he would have omitted the pronoun ἡμᾶς. The "everyone" or the "all" are limited by the "we." Since Paul was writing to the Church at Corinth the we is defined as the "believers" in Corinth. While there are many who hold to a general final judgment (both lost and saved at the same event), I am not one of them. I hold that the Judgment Seat of Christ will only involve the Church in heaven. The lost will be judged at the Great White Throne Judgment that is described in Revelation 20. On this forum this is definitely the uncommon view.
6. The conjunction γὰρ at the beginning of the sentence is the common use of γὰρ that means an explanation is coming. Paul linked the previous context to this verse through the γὰρ. It means that verse 10 explains something from the previous context. You put the "for" later in the sentence, purpose and result clauses rarely use γὰρ, instead they do like Paul did here, he used ἵνα clause to indicate the purpose of the judgment seat of Christ. You tried to make γὰρ as the basis of why we have already been judged in Christ. You are right about one thing, we have already been judicially judged in Christ, not at the Bema, it was done by God's act of justification at the instant a sinner places their faith in the person and work of Christ.
7. Finally, you translated τοῦ βήματος τοῦ χριστοῦ in separate phrases when they are linked together. The phrase is a genitive phrase and for the sake of simplicity it is a possessive, the judgment seat that belongs to Christ. That indicates that what takes place there will be done by the Son of God. In Corinth (where Paul was writing) there was a series of games called the Isthmian Games, after the Isthmus of Corinth. The phrase τοῦ βήματος the Bema was a raised platform at the center of the games where the victory rewards were handed out. The purpose of the judgment seat of Christ is to make known or to make manifest those things we did in the body following our salvation. It will determine who will receive rewards for their service and who will suffer loss of rewards.

I do highly recommend the book the Judgment Seat of Christ by Samuel Hoyt. It refutes the idea that the judgment seat of Christ will involve the judgment of sin. Yet it keeps the very important truth that we should be motivated to serve Him in this life. While we will receive rewards it is only to put them at His feet because He is the true source of any reward we might obtain.

Someone asked how I would translate this verse. What I offer here is a little loose so as to convey what I think is happening at this event. See below for the issues that are involved in translating this verse.

For we must all be made open before the Bema seat of Christ that we each may receive a just reward for the things done in the body, according to what he did, whether good or bad.

What are the issues that add difficulty to translating this very important verse:

• There is the infinitive φανερωθῆναι which normally is translated as "appear." Remember the nature of the aorist infinitive is defined by the context, which in this case is the fact that at this event everything we have done, good or bad, will be manifested before the judgment seat of Christ. Since I don't view this event as a judicial scene I like to avoid the impression that it is by choosing "appear." In modern English we have a phrase that I think fits well, we will be an "open book" before Him.
• There is the noun phrase τοῦ βήματος (the Bema). This had a specific meaning to the original audience that I think is lost to the average reader today because we are so used to calling it the judgment seat. Since the meaning of the Bema seat would require some explanation no matter what, I chose Bema because, again I want to avoid the impression that this is a judicial judgment, it is not.
• The middle verb κομίσηται. This where I added the most to the translation because receive in this verse is just not enough to convey the idea of the verb in this context. The idea of the verb is much more than just receiving something. It is to be recompensed or to be paid back. So I added the word just to convey the fact that it will be based on a perfect assessment of what we have done. I have to admit that the reward aspect does come from the other Bema seat passages (1 Cor. 3, Romans 14:10). It also comes from understanding what the Bema seat was in ancient Corinth, the site of the Isthmian Games. If you made it this far through the answer give yourself a cookie.

I personally took up this answer because it is a major component in my PhD dissertation, when does justification occur? I argue that it happen at the instant a sinner places their faith in Christ. Part of my argument denies that there is any scene in heaven in which a believer will judicially judged. Church age believers will be at the judgment seat of Christ and the lost at the great white throne judgment.