3

There are several English renderings and they vary a lot. Taken very literally it seems to say "In remainder, ". Some have something along the lines of "From that time forward". NLT has "There he waits". What is it really saying?

[Hebrews 10:13 NLT] There he waits until his enemies are humbled and made a footstool under his feet.

mGNT 10:13 τὸ λοιπὸν ἐκδεχόμενος ἕως τεθῶσιν οἱ ἐχθροὶ αὐτοῦ ὑποπόδιον τῶν ποδῶν αὐτοῦ

  • (+1) Young also has 'awaiting'. KJV - 'expecting'. And nobody is noticing the article before λοιπὸν, I notice. – Nigel J Mar 16 '19 at 20:00
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On the understanding that the meaning of the Greek verb is linked with the concept of "to remain, to left", the expression το λοιπον can be translated in several occasions considering the latter a noun, that is, 'what is remains', 'what is left (behind)', and so on.

But in the case on the issue (Heb 10:13a) - like in other NT occurrences of this expression - taking into an account the context, το λοιπον ("accusative of extent of time", Robertson's Word Pictures in the NT) can be translated like classical Greek, as in Xenophon (Symposion 4.1, "there's still to [do]... [...] "It now devolves on us to [prove]..."), Isocrates (12.88, "nothing left for me to [do]..."), and Plato (Republic, 444e, 'it remains for us to [consider]...)'.

In other words, an apt translation that respects fully the reasoning of the Hebrews' writer could be "it only remains for him (Jesus Christ) to wait...".

1

Heb 10:13 should not be separated from the previous verse that discusses Jesus' "unspeakable gift" (2 Cor 9:15) of His sacrifice for sin and then sat down on the right of the throne God.

V13 then begins with an extremely significant word in the NT, loipos, which has various shades of meaning depending on the part of speech.

The basic meaning is preserved in the noun, "loipos", meaning (BDAG) "pertaining to that which remains over, especially after action has been taken, left"; eg, Rev 8:13, 11:13, 9:20. Note these are eschatological uses.

As an adverb or adjective relating to time (as here) the word means (BDAG), "from now on, in the future, henceforth"; or even "in the time left" (because this is specifically discussing the time between Jesus' ascension and when He assumes control by making His enemies a footstool); eg, 1 Cor 7:29, 2 Tim 4:8 - note, again, the eschatological flavour here.

Thus, I would translate Heb 10:12, 13 as: "Christ … sat down at the right of the throne of God and from then on (or in the time left) is waiting "until his enemies are made a footstool for his feet."

  • Can you please change the highlighting from the usage you disqualified to the one you landed upon? IE: the next paragraph? Thanks. – Ruminator Mar 17 '19 at 14:04
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Here's my tentative translation:

Hebrews 10:11-14 Indeed, every high priest stands ministering daily, offering the same sacrifices many times, which cannot take away sins. But this one, having offered one, consummate sacrifice, sits at the right hand of God, waiting till that time when his enemies shall be made a footstool for his feet. For by one offering he has perfected the sanctified once and for all.

The bolded portion translates the Greek words το λοιπον εκδεχομενος εως. More literally we might translate it "waiting out the time [that is to elapse] until," except this implies some kind of impatient waiting process, whereas the Greek does not. το λοιπον means more literally "the whenever," coming from a root sense "remainder" or here "[time] left [until]." εκδεχομενος means "waiting" or "awaiting" or "expecting." And of course εως just means "until."

0

Good catch. We read right over so many statements, and our expectations color how and what we think of God's word.

Strong's Gr. 1551, "ἐκδέχομαι" - or, ekdechomai, defined as "to take or receive, by implication to wait for, expect"

The word is broken down in HELPS word studies as:

"1551 ekdéxomai (from 1537 /ek, "out from and to" and 1209/dexomai, "welcome") – properly, welcome from the heart, looking to the end-result of the waiting (literally, its "out-come," outcome)." (1)

An outcome, a result, an expected "end" for the until, or proper time to take action. Think of it as the probate of the will.

Death of the Testator

Time statements are very critical, and many students are not paying attention. Until we can take off the colored glasses that have been deliberately slipped over our eyes for the last 120 years or so, we cannot see. We have been blinded by a political agenda for a certain nation "state". (2)

"15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

6 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.

17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth." (Heb 9:15-17, KJV)

"For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself." (Heb 9:26, KJV) or

"since it had behoved him many times to suffer from the foundation of the world, but now once, at the full end of the ages, for putting away of sin through his sacrifice, he hath been manifested;" (Heb 9:26, Young's)

The book of Hebrews was written about 60 - 65 AD, within 10 years of the destruction of the temple in AD 70. The author (probably Paul) stated that Christ Yeshua had been sacrificed "at the full end of the ages." Since time has continued on, and people are still born, still live their lives, and still die, then "the end of the ages" was not speaking of the end of time, nor the end of the physical cosmos.

Christ was manifested in "these last days" (1 Pet 1:20), and Christ was manifested and sacrificed in the 1st century AD, therefore "these last days" and "the end of the ages" refer to the first century AD when Christ came in the fullness of time (Gal. 4:4) to put an end to something.

Probate of the Will

After the death of the testator the will is read before the heirs.

From the time of His sacrifice on the cross (approx. 31 AD) to the time of the destruction of the temple (1st of Tishri, Sep AD 70- Note 3) was 40 years inclusively, and was the anti-type of the 40 years wandering in the wilderness after the exodus from Egypt. Forty (40) years = a generation. (4)

That 40 years of the new covenant was the time period during the first century AD when the gospel of Christ was broadcast, preached throughout the Roman empire (the world as defined by Luke 2:1 - Note 5).

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come." (Matt. 24:14, KJV)

"all the word" - was the Roman empire, the land they inhabited. During the probate period of the preaching of the word, the saints and assemblies were being prepared for "the end of days" that Gabriel had told Daniel to expect. That end of days was the end of the desolations of Jerusalem (Dan. 9:24-12:13). It was the end of the animal sacrificial worship system at that temple that had become profane once Christ was sacrificed on the cross.

A will has conditions that have to be met in order for the heirs to inherit.

"3 Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.....5 Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth." (Matt. 5:3, 5, KJV)

Some commentators believe that Matt. 5:5 should go before Matt. 3:5, but Christ linked "the kingdom of heaven" with "inherit the earth." The phrase "inherit the earth" or land was a Hebrew idiom meaning great blessings. Though it referred to the old land promise of the Abrahamic covenant, Christ used it to refer to the kingdom of heaven. As such it did not mean a physical land nation / state, but the kingdom that came without observation (Luke 17:20) that is within the hearts of those who believe.

So, inheriting the earth was a synonym for the inheritance of the kingdom, the new promised land. And, the inheritance had to wait for probate of the will.

The End of Probate Period

"And white robes were given unto every one of them; and it was said unto them, that they should rest yet for a little season, until their fellowservants also and their brethren, that should be killed as they were, should be fulfilled." (Rev. 6:11, KJV)

How long is a short, or little season? 2,000+ years and counting?

Just as God sent His Son into the world at the fullness of time for his ministry (Gal. 4:4), God again sent His son at the last trump (the Feast of Trumpets, Yom Teruah) to take vengeance upon those who had crucified Him, and who were persecuting His saints.

The tribulation was to occur during this probate period (Matt. 24:6ff), and was the persecution of the saints under Nero who let all hell break loose against them, blaming the Christians for burning Rome (AD 64), and the short season the martyrs had to wait was during that last 6 years to the end of the siege for the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple by God's strong arm - the Roman army under Titus whose legion symbol was a lightning bolt (fire from heaven).

Christ was waiting at the right hand of the Father to come against Jerusalem to end the Mosaic covenant worship system, and to bring into full existence His everlasting kingdom.

That was the waiting expectation of Heb. 10:13. That was the probation period which ended with the judgment against Jerusalem that had been prophesied from Isaiah, Jeremiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Haggai, Joel, etc.

The end of the desolations / destruction of Jerusalem was the "second" coming of Christ which had been promised to that same generation (Heb. 9:28) who had seen His first manifestation, and all the world (of the Roman empire) saw that desolation. That was the end of the probate period of the will.

The Inheritance - The Kingdom

He has not been waiting for 2,000+ years to take vengeance on "those who pierced Him" (Rev. 1:7). There are no "end of days" of an everlasting kingdom. The Messianic age took over legally at the cross of Christ, waited during the 40 years of the broadcast and probate of the will of the testator, and was fully and completely established 40 years later at the destruction of the temple in AD 70.

Those who are immersed in His name, are then anointed by the Holy Spirit as priests and kings in His kingdom (1 Pet. 2:9), and inherit the "earth" or promised land of the kingdom of heaven. All the saved / saints were waiting during that 40 years for that inheritance to be fully in effect. That is why all the letters to the churches/assemblies were constantly encouraging them to continue in their faith, to continue to believe, to be constant and patient.

The Everlasting Kingdom

The everlasting kingdom came in full force and effect at the end of the probate at the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70. This was clearly outlined by the parable of the kingdom in Matt. 22:1-14. Destruction of the city, was the destruction of Jerusalem, at which time the feast of the bridegroom and marriage to the bride took place, and at that same feast, judgment began.

Christ finished one task, and started the next - the reign over the everlasting kingdom. He rules now, and has been ruling at the right hand of the Father since 70 AD. We have been living in the Messianic age, or the Christian age ever since.

Christ had told His disciples (Matt. 24 - 25) that when He returned He would come in judgement, with His kingdom, and would separate out those waiting in Hades at that time. That is when Daniel stood in his lot with the rest of those sheep Christ took home to heaven in AD 70. That is when Christ threw Hades into the lake of fire (Rev. 20:14) (6)

Christ has continued to judge both the nations, and the individual every single day since. We are living in His everlasting kingdom now - an everlasting kingdom which will never end.

Those early believers of the 1st century AD were the ones who were waiting. We don't have to wait for another coming, because Christ fulfilled all of those prophesies at His second coming in that generation, and He is already with us in His kingdom now. He rules and reigns now.

"to Him [is] the glory in the assembly in Christ Jesus, to all the generations of the age of the ages. Amen." (Eph. 3:21, Young's)

Notes:

1) Strong's Gr. 1551 - biblehub

2) "It's Not The End of The World, Part VI -...." at ShreddingTheVeil

3) "The Signs of the Feasts - Part II...." at ShreddingTheVeil

4) "The Promised Land: Between the Cross and The Kingdom" at ShreddingTheVeil

5) "Frequent Mistakes - Part IV: Where Was All The World" at ShreddingTheVeil

6) "The Signs of Revelation - Part VI: Judgment Day..." at ShreddingTheVeil

(Bold emphasis is mine.)

  • @ Ruminator - Did that help? – Gina Mar 17 '19 at 19:49
  • "Perfeck", thanks! – Ruminator Mar 17 '19 at 19:50
  • I'm surprised/disappointed that you went with the KJV rather than the YLT as you are wont. You wrote: "17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth." (Heb 9:15-17, KJV)" The YLT has the right idea: [Heb 9:16-18 YLT] (16) for where a covenant is, the death of the covenant-victim to come in is necessary, (17) for a covenant over dead victims is stedfast, since it is no force at all when the covenant-victim liveth, (18) whence not even the first apart from blood hath been initiated, – Ruminator Mar 17 '19 at 20:57
  • Making a point, more easily understood for some in legal speak. Legally, the reign / rule was transferred from Judah to Christ at His death on the cross (Gen. 49:10). But, the will (gospel) had to be read to the heirs and the conditions met, before the inheritance (kingdom) could be fully put in place. Probate took 40 years. – Gina Mar 18 '19 at 7:52
  • Are you suggesting that Jesus died and left all his possessions to others? The word is the same word that is translated almost everywhere else in the scriptures as "covenant". Jesus was the death brought to the deal by God to ratify the new covenant, just like the animals that ratified the Abrahamic and Sinai covenants. "This is the new covenant [ratified] in my blood". – Ruminator Mar 18 '19 at 11:07
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Disclaimer: I have no formal training in Biblical languages.

I checked with LSJ Lexicon about "to loipon" and in section 3 it says that this neuter construction is often used with the sense of "henceforward, hereafter":

LSJ

So it appears that, unlike the Aaronic priests who had to offer sacrifices every day, Jesus offered one sacrifice to ratify the new covenant and be a propitiation and once resurrected and ascended, essentially "rested from his works" as God did at the end of creation week. From the time he sat down and forward he had no more work to accomplish until the time came to rain holy hell down upon his enemies (IE: in 70ad):

[Heb 10:11-18 CSB] (11) Every priest stands day after day ministering and offering the same sacrifices time after time, which can never take away sins. (12) But this man, after offering one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God. (13) He is now waiting until his enemies are made his footstool. (14) For by one offering he has perfected forever those who are sanctified. (15) The Holy Spirit also testifies to us about this. For after he says: (16) This is the covenant I will make with them after those days, the Lord says, I will put my laws on their hearts and write them on their minds, (17) and I will never again remember their sins and their lawless acts. (18) Now where there is forgiveness of these, there is no longer an offering for sin.

It is significant then that Stephen sees him standing at the head of God's armies, indicating that the punishment of his enemies was at hand. IE: the Great Jewish Revolt of 70ad.

In this related question/answer it was agreed that God is the one who puts the enemies under Christ's feet (rather than the other way around). So, unlike the way it is normally translated, I don't think this should be understood that Jesus sits on God's right hand while God vanquishes his foes for him. No, he is the captain of God's armies (as I showed above). So I translate it along these lines:

"From then on to wait until it is time to put his enemies under his feet as if they were a footstool"

Note: As I do not have any formal training in the biblical languages I subjected this translation to the Big Greeks but have not yet received an evaluation. I will update when I do.

The vengeance that Jesus takes upon his enemies is mentioned in other places:

[Luke 19:27 KJV] (27) But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them [IE: Jewish leaders], bring hither, and slay them before me.

[Luke 21:20-22 KJV] (20) And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh. (21) Then let them which are in Judaea flee to the mountains; and let them which are in the midst of it depart out; and let not them that are in the countries enter thereinto. (22) For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled.

In summary:

When Jesus sat down at God's right hand it signified that he was put into a position of authority above all, including his enemies. Any angelic enemies were subjugated at upon his death and resurrection:

[1 Peter 3:22 KJV] Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.

I'm not sure about the aspect of the aorist participle "being made subject" but normally aorists are in the past, per this discussion, so it seems to read that way here, that before he sat down the angels were either completely subjugated or at least in the process.

However, there was one last score with his enemies and that was settled circa 70ad. It was that for which Jesus was sitting and waiting.

  • Jesus is still very active. He is, among other things the great sustainer of the universe (Col 1:17) and the great intercessor between God and Man (1 Tim 2:5). I also believe there is an apocalyptically eschatological component to this idea as well as demonstrated in Revelation, written AFTER 70 AD. – user25930 Mar 17 '19 at 4:32
  • After all, Christ's enemies are not yet a footstool for His feet - we still await that final event. – user25930 Mar 17 '19 at 4:33
  • The fact that Colossians seems to paint Jesus in repose upon his ascent gave me pause which is why I raised the question. However, isn't that what it is saying? That his redemptive work is finished?: [Hebrews 4:10 CSB] For the person who has entered his rest has rested from his own works, just as God did from his. The rest was temporary and symbolic. – Ruminator Mar 17 '19 at 10:30
  • The Revelation would not be very useful if it were written after the fact! John was there but only prophetically ("in the spirit"). It was written to show God's servants what was about to happen. – Ruminator Mar 17 '19 at 10:32
  • I agree - that why some of the events John discusses are still future. Some of the material, eg, Rev 1-3 was for his day without question. But there is much about the second coming as well. – user25930 Mar 17 '19 at 10:46

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