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Disclaimer: I have no formal training in Biblical languages.

In the Hebrew of Daniel 9:24 he is told that messiah was to חָתַם the vision and prophecy. As I have been told and have confirmed to the best of my ability, it is saying that messiah will "finish/complete vision and prophesy".

Gesenius

However, Revelation seems to be reading the LXX that has σφραγίσαι and is telling Daniel to "seal up [IE: "conceal"] the vision and the prophets":

Daniel 9:24:

KJV - 24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.

Masoretic 9:24 שָׁבֻעִים שִׁבְעִים נֶחְתַּךְ עַֽל־עַמְּךָ וְעַל־עִיר קָדְשֶׁךָ לְכַלֵּא הַפֶּשַׁע ולחתם חטאות וּלְכַפֵּר עָוֹן וּלְהָבִיא צֶדֶק עֹֽלָמִים וְלַחְתֹּם חָזֹון וְנָבִיא וְלִמְשֹׁחַ קֹדֶשׁ קָֽדָשִֽׁים׃

LXX 9:24 ἑβδομήκοντα ἑβδομάδες συνετμήθησαν ἐπὶ τὸν λαόν σου καὶ ἐπὶ τὴν πόλιν τὴν ἁγίαν σου τοῦ συντελεσθῆναι ἁμαρτίαν καὶ τοῦ σφραγίσαι ἁμαρτίας καὶ ἀπαλεῗψαι τὰς ἀνομίας καὶ τοῦ ἐξιλάσασθαι ἀδικίας καὶ τοῦ ἀγαγεῗν δικαιοσύνην αἰώνιον καὶ τοῦ σφραγίσαι ὅρασιν καὶ προφήτην καὶ τοῦ χρῗσαι ἅγιον ἁγίων

In Chapter 10 John appears to follow the Masoretic:

Rev 10:7 KJV - 7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.

But in Revelation 22:10 he seems to be alluding to the LXX:

Rev 22:10 KJV - 10 And he saith unto me, Seal[G4972 ie: "con-seal"; hide in a document with tamper-proof seals] not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.

Is Revelation alluding to the same passage in two different ways?:

  • once ala Masoretic
  • once ala LXX

Or is he alluding to different passages?

  • I've voted to close, but only tentatively. You need to limit your question to a specific text. Even one verse can have a large explanation behind it. Two verses (several chapters apart, and for which I can see no immediate connection) is too broad. – user2910 Feb 21 at 21:01
  • The connection is that they both appear to be alluding to the same verse but from different versions! – Ruminator Feb 21 at 21:03
  • I think this is a good question and would vote to keep it open. – user25930 Feb 21 at 21:04
  • I don't see how 10:7 is a reference to Daniel 9. It isn't evident that "the mystery of God" is what is in view in Daniel 9. At least it can't be made any assumption. – Sola Gratia Mar 26 at 22:23
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First the LXX of Daniel 9:24 contains the phrase τοῦ σφραγίσαι ὅρασιν καὶ προφήτην = seal vision and prophet. This is the text (at this point in the verse) of all the versions of the LXX including Theodotion. The Hebrew simply says, "and-to-seal-up vision and-prophecy" (three words in Hebrew.)

The word "seal up" here is given below

enter image description here

I could not find a reference to "Ending the vision" except in the question's lexical quote (Gesenius) and a similar one in Davidson's Analytical Lexicon of Hebrew and Chaldee. In both these lexicons, Dan 9:24 is the only exception and most modern translations appear to disagree because they render it "seal up" or similar. (The ISV & NAB are the only exception I found that renders this word "conclude".) Jerome's Latin Vulgate also has "seal up".

Thus, a more interesting question might be asked, If these two famous lexicons both say that Daniel 9:24 has the only exception for "h'tom" being translated as "finish" instead of "seal up", why do all historic translations (LXX, Jerome) up to the present with the exception of the DRB & NAB use "seal up"?

The question asks about the NT connection to this phrase.

The idea of sealing something occurs more than once in Daniel: Dan 8:26 (a vision), Dan 9:24 (a vision), Dan 12:4 (a book), Dan 12:9 (words sealed until the time of the end).

I cannot see a connection between Rev 10:7 and Dan 9:24 in either the MT or LXX. However there is an obvious connection between Rev 10:8 and Dan 12:4, 9.

I do see a connection between Rev 22:10 and Dan 8:26, 9:24, 12:4, 12:9 to the extent that they are opposites - Daniel instructed to seal his book while John was instructed NOT to seal his book.

  • Interlinears are notoriously unreliable. I'll document the question a little better. Sorry, it was a poorly formed question, perhaps both in my own mind and on paper. – Ruminator Feb 21 at 22:15
  • I agree interlinears are unreliable, but when I examined the meaning of the words, all good translations render it "seal up". – user25930 Feb 21 at 22:57
  • I might be misreading Gesenius. He seems to provide a translation and then criticizes it. Is that what you see? (I added an image to the question). – Ruminator Feb 21 at 23:02
  • I agree it is a very loose rendering of the Hebrew but not completely wrong. Strictly, the word should be translated "seal up" (or similar) BUT the EFFECT of sealing up in this case is to bring it to conclusion. Therefore, I would regard "complete" or "finish" as an understandable interpretive (ie, paraphraistic) rendering but not a good translation. – user25930 Feb 22 at 1:05
  • May I ask you if you have any formal training in Hebrew? Thanks. – Ruminator Feb 22 at 1:08

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