וַיֹּ֨אמֶר שָׁא֜וּל אֶתְּנֶ֤נָּה לֹּו֙ וּתְהִי־לֹ֣ו לְמֹוקֵ֔שׁ וּתְהִי־בֹ֖ו יַד־פְּלִשְׁתִּ֑ים וַיֹּ֤אמֶר שָׁאוּל֙ אֶל־דָּוִ֔ד בִּשְׁתַּ֛יִם תִּתְחַתֵּ֥ן בִּ֖י הַיֹּֽום׃ (WLC)
“I will give her [Michal] to David,” Saul thought, “so that she may be a snare to him, and the hand of the Philistines may be against him.” So Saul said to David, “For a second time* now you can be my son-in-law.” (BSB)
*The ESV notes "Hebrew by two".
The preceding account of Saul offering Merab to David isn't in the Septuagint, nor is the "for a second time". So it seems this phrase was added along with Merab's offer in an attempt to merge Merab's and Michal's offers together. How is "for the second time" intended to be taken here though? I'm seeing three main suggestions:
- "You will be my son-in-law for the second time"
- "You have a second chance to be my son-in-law"
- "Saul spoke for the second time, saying, you can be my son-in-law"
Note: I'm wondering about the implications of this phrase as is (sans wider context). Merab is noted to be the wife of Adriel (2 Samuel 21:8), but arguments could be made for extraneous circumstances that saw Saul marry Merab to David then change his mind and marry her to Adriel after, considering he showed no qualms marrying Michal to Paltiel after already having married her to David later (1 Samuel 25:44).