A parallel Bible I used this morning from the 1800s notes that the Greek "προέθετο" from Romans 3:25 can be alternatively translated as "foreordained." However, modern parallel and interlinear Bible references don't include this alternative at all and I've had trouble finding more than a handful of websites that mention it.
(KJV) Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation...
(ALT) Whom God hath foreordained to be a propitiation...
Is the connotation of "foreordained" no longer considered acceptable for the word or this verse?
Edit: The Parallel Bible (The Authorised Version of 1611 arranged in Parallel Columns with the Revised Version 1885/1881), Oxford University Press, 1886, New Testament pg 181 (Rom 3:25) margin note for set forth from the authorised version: "or foreordained." Margin note for set forth from the revised version: "or purposed."
My question isn't about the grammar, but the continued acceptance of the word "foreordained" as an alternative translation to "set forth."