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I am curious as to why the Hebrew word for "crafty/shrewd," עָרוּם, used to characterize the serpent in the Garden in Genesis 3:1 is the same word in Genesis 2:25, describing Adam and Eve, yet translated as "naked." The plural form is used with Adam and Eve, and the singular form is used with the serpent.
Both words are nearly side by side in those two verses, yet translated differently. With no chapter/verse differentiation, as the ancient texts were written, then both words should be the same.
I think that maybe Adam and Eve were created with that "shrewd/crafty" mindset, but since they knew not both "Good and Evil," like the "serpent" did, then he was "more" "crafty," as the KJV puts it. Any illumination into this would be hugely appreciated. Thank you.

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The singular form of עֲרוּמִּים (arumim) in Genesis 2:25 is actually עָרוֹם (arom). In Genesis 3:1, the word is עָרוּם (arum). The words are close, and even if they were identical, they would simply be homonyms.

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    Indeed, and they have separate Strong's entries and etymologies: "naked" is 'arom from 'ur but "shrewd" is 'arum from 'aram. Of course, as with many OT near-homonyms appearing in close proximity, the author was likely aware of the echo. A Jewish studies friend adds that the word has traditionally been read with a connotation of mental "nakedness" (innocence), yielding a more direct antonym for "shrewd" and heightening the irony. – Luke Sawczak Jan 29 '19 at 5:25
  • Firstly, what false premise? Secondly, I am speaking of the fact that these words in the original texts had no vowel signs, so they would be exactly the same. I am not talking about Strong's definitions, etc. I am only asking about the original language. – H. F. Watts Jr. Jan 30 '19 at 17:53
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    @H.F.WattsJr.—They may have the same consonants, and in that sense “they would be exactly the same,” but that does not mean they would be pronounced the same. I mean, I can't count how many words would be “exactly the same” if all we did was acknowledge the consonants but ignore the traditional vowel pointing. But again, even if they were pronounced the same, that does not mean they would have the same meaning. Again, homonyms. – Der Übermensch Jan 31 '19 at 2:03
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    @Ruminator: Per OED: “Philology. Applied to words having the same sound, but differing in meaning: opposed to heteronym and synonym.” So, homonym is a proper term. – Der Übermensch Feb 1 '19 at 2:12
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    @H.F.WattsJr.—I see that you have two upvotes and one downvote for your question. If you click on the "1" (your score) beside your question, it will open up further and reveal how many upvotes and downvotes you have. – Der Übermensch Feb 9 '19 at 20:02

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