I have a question regarding the significance of the Subjunctive tense comparing to the Future tense in examination of the promises found in the letters to the seven Churches in the Book of Revelation. In the seven letters there are several promises given on the end of each letter to those that "overcome". In conclusion, all the promises are in the future tense apart from two:
- Rev 2:11: ὁ νικῶν οὐ μὴ ἀδικηθῇ ἐκ τοῦ θανάτου τοῦ δευτέρου. (He that overcometh shall not be hurt of the second death).
- Rev 3:12: ὁ νικῶν ποιήσω αὐτὸν στῦλον ἐν τῷ ναῷ τοῦ θεοῦ μου καὶ ἔξω οὐ μὴ ἐξέλθῃ ἔτι. (Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out.)
Both of the phrases "οὐ μὴ ἀδικηθῇ" (shall not be hurt) and ἔξω οὐ μὴ ἐξέλθῃ ἔτι (shall go no more out) are in the Subjunctive tense and not in the Future tense. Is there a specific grammatical reason for this? Does it affect the meaning of the phrase, or is it nothing but a grammatical issue?