[Mat 24:30 KJV] 30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Is this "sign" not the arrival of the son of man at the throne of God?:
[Dan 7:13 KJV] 13 I saw in the night visions, and, behold, [one] like the Son of man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him.
Perhaps we are being careless when we don't distinguish his "coming" from his "return"? I'm reminded of this parable:
[Luk 19:11-14 KJV] 11 And as they heard these things, he added and spake a parable, because he was nigh to Jerusalem, and because they thought that the kingdom of God should immediately appear. 12 He said therefore, A certain nobleman [IE: "the son of man"] went into a far country [IE: "heaven"] to receive for himself a kingdom [IE: his "coming" to the throne to receive all authority from God], and [THEN] to return. 13 And he called his ten servants, and delivered them ten pounds, and said unto them, Occupy till I come. 14 But his citizens [the Jews] hated him, and sent a message after him, saying, We will not have this [man] to reign over us.
What makes this confusing is that later in the passage he uses the word "coming" to refer to his return:
[Luk 19:15, 23 KJV] 15 And it came to pass, that when he was returned, having received the kingdom, then he commanded these servants to be called unto him, to whom he had given the money, that he might know how much every man had gained by trading. ... 23 Wherefore then gavest not thou my money into the bank, that at my coming [ἐλθὼν] I might have required mine own with usury?