I was looking at Galatians 2:20 -
I have been crucified with Christ.
And I wondered if there was anything in the Greek grammar that showed if "have been" indicated an action of a single, past moment, or if it was a current and on-going condition.
I found the following on-line items, which break down the grammar to differing degrees. I'm wondering if I am correctly interpreting what I'm reading (the grammar helps - not the Greek).
First, from BibleHub:
Christ I have been crucified with
Seeing that "I have been crucified with" is interpreted as one word was a surprise. Yet the Greek word doesn't seem to be several different words crammed together (as the Germans might do).
At Scripture4All.org, I found this:
vi Perf Pas 1 Sg
verb indicative (mood)
1st person singular
So, yes, this is apparently a compound word: my Strong's references to G4957, which breaks it into G4862 + G4717, which gives me "with" + "impale; crucify". But the "I have been" is still elusive.
Then I hit Abarim Publications, which says this:
The word συνεσταυρωμαι is the 1st person single form of the verb marked similar below. Its tense is perfect (which indicates a present-tense report of an action that has been completed but has effects in the now; like: "he has done"), its voice is passive (which indicates that the subject receives the action in stead of performs it), and its mood is indicative (which describes a situation that actually is — as opposed to a situation that might be, is wished for, or is commanded to be).
Whew!! So it seems as though in the Greek, after working through all the various spelling variants indicating voice, tense, and so forth (which I'm still not sure what all that means), I am reasonably sure that "I have been" does indeed indicate an action that leaves me in this state as a current and on-going condition? That once "I have ben crucified with Christ", I am still crucified? (Asking only in the sense of grammar construction, not doctrinal viewpoint.)