Please Note : This is a question about the TR, not about the Westcott and Hort text or the Nestle Aland text.
Stephens, Beza, Elzevir and Scrivener all include των αμαρτιων 'of the sins' in the text of Colossians 2:11 :
εν ω και περιετμηθητε περιτομη αχειροποιητω εν τη απεκδυσει του σωματος των αμαρτιων της σαρκος εν τη περιτομη του χριστου
In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ: [KJV 1769]
Tyndale does not (quite) include the phrase :
... circumcision made without hands, by putting off the sinful body of flesh
The Vulgate clearly does not contain the phrase :
... circumcision not made by hand, in despoiling of the body of the flesh
[Douay-Rheims and, also, The Wycliffe]
So I therefore assume that the Old Latin excludes it.
Unusually, J N Darby departs from the Textus Receptus on this point :
... circumcision not done by hand, in putting off of the body of the flesh
The concept 'the body of the sins of the flesh' is not an illogical one. We speak of a 'body' of water, that is to say a shape of water which is the result of the containment in which it resides.
So also I can see that the same might be said of sins. All the sins committed by a particular individual may be viewed as a 'body of sins' which is associated with the individual flesh of that particular person.
I am interested, therefore, in what Textual evidence there is, for and against its inclusion or exclusion from the Received Text.
That authorities such as Jerome, Tyndale and J N Darby omit the phrase is not, of itself, sufficient evidence for me to come to a conclusion. I would be looking for stronger evidence.