The words μετατιθημι and μεταθεσις are used in Hebrews 11:5 and are rendered as follows in the KJV :
By faith Enoch was translated (μετατιθημι) that he should not see death; and was not found, because God had translated (μετατιθημι) him: for before his translation (μεταθεσις) he had this testimony, that he pleased God.
But in Colossians 1:13, Paul states :
Who hath delivered us from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear Son:
and he uses the word μεθιστημι, not the Hebrews wording.
Also, I notice that Robert Young adds (in brackets) the word μεθιστανο when he lists the usage of the above word μεθιστημι in the rear of his Analytical Concordance.
What is the difference between the two Greek words which are both rendered 'translated' by the KJV ?
Is there a substantial difference in their two meanings ?
Does Robert Young's bracketed addition have a significant bearing on the meaning ?
EDIT NOTE : I understand that the KJV usage of 'translate' may be an archaic use. There was an engineering term which conveys the idea of picking something up, maintaining its spatial orientation, and then placing it down again. I have not been able to research this any more thoroughly, however.