οτι εν αυτω ευδοκησεν παν το πληρωμα κατοικησαικαι δι αυτου αποκαταλλαξαι τα παντα εις αυτον
(Colossians 1:19 and 20a - TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir and Scrivener all identical.)
The literal EGNT (Englishman's Greek New Testament 1877) interlinear gives, for this :
because in him was pleased all the fulness to dwell, and by him to reconcile all things to itself
Young's Literal gives :
because in him did it please all the fulness to tabernacle and through him to reconcile the all things to himself
This is one of the places where the KJV tries too hard to produce correct English grammar and here the KJV translators have added 'the Father' and also changed the word order considerably, inserting a whole clause (which I have bracketed) from later on in the verse :
For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; And (having made peace through the blood of his cross) by him to reconcile all things unto himself;
Robert Young does not add or insert, but treats εις αυτον as 'to himself' without an antecedent to say who 'him' is.
The EGNT treats the 'fulness' as a thing and translates εις αυτον as 'to itself'.
Is this EGNT wording a legitimate translation ?