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The question is based of Jesus’ prayer recorded at John Ch. 17 in which he made the following statements in verses 6 and 27:

KJV John 17:

6 “I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.”

27 “And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare [it:] that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them.”

  • 'Father' ... 'thy name' ... The name in which God is glorified by the Son ... is 'Father'. – Nigel J Oct 21 '18 at 2:39
  • Father is a title or formal address not a name. Example, my father has a name, Fred. (1 Samuel 19:2) . . .Jonathan told David: “My father (formal address) Saul (name) . . ." (1 Kings 5:3) . . .You well know that David (name) my father (formal address). . . – user26950 Oct 21 '18 at 16:44

13 Answers 13

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”I am YHVH: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.” Isaiah 45:8

Since the God of Yeshua is the same God spoken of in the Hebrew scriptures, then it was YHVH’s (Yahweh’s) name that Yeshua declared.

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  • And yet John failed to include this? – Revelation Lad Dec 3 '18 at 17:20
  • @RevelationLad, not to mention that John had already said that Jesus was himself the YHVH, and that the Father had been unknown to mankind until now. – Ray Butterworth Sep 29 '19 at 14:51
  • This is not a name that is contextual with question. In other words, this is a poor answer because it doesn't say why this name is correct rather than any of the other names of God instead. – elika kohen Feb 3 at 23:15
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My name distinguishes me as an individual from any other individual. A family name distinguishes me from any other family. My personal name distinguishes me within my own family.

Within Deity, the Son is distinct from the Father : the Father is distinct from the Son. I say 'distinct' in that each may be distinguished from the other. Yet is there, within Deity, a perfection of unity whereby both are - in one Divine and Holy Spirit - one.

Jesus taught his disciples to address 'Our Father' together, corporately. And he himself, in humanity, addressed himself to 'Father' as an individual (in humanity). The whole of Jesus' prayer of John chapter seventeen is addressed to Pater, Father.

And he said unto them, When ye pray, say, Our Father which art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. Luke 11:2.

The Holy Spirit has no name. For he is not prominent and not realised, of himself, for such is He. But it is through Him that one is conscious of the Father. And through him that one is conscious of the Son.

I would suggest that, on certain occasions in the Greek scriptures, prayer is addressed to Deity, as such, that is to Theos, God, which could well be understood as being addressed to the Person, the Holy Spirit.

The one born of Mary in Bethlehem is named. This is a matter of his humanity. And he is known - to us (if we believe) - in that humanity and by that name.

He said :

No man cometh unto the Father but by me. John 6:44.

Regarding the name of 'Jesus Christ of Nazareth' the apostle tells us

There is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. Acts 4:12.

It is clear from the apostolic writings - written by those authorised to do so by Jesus Christ himself - that men are to believe on Jesus Christ of Nazareth and that, thus, they shall be brought, by him, to the Father, and be brought in a spiritual way by a Spirit who is holy.

And when they do so, they shall do as he did, on earth, in humanity when he said :

Abba, Father . . Mark 14:36 . . all things are possible unto thee.

For the apostle Paul tells us :

For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again to fear; but ye have received the Spirit of adoption, whereby we cry, Abba, Father. Romans 8:15.

Brought by Christ, in one Spirit - who is holy - the children born of him cry Abba, Father.

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  • Thanks for that. But as most the trap is: the "Father" is not a Name, its a title, why? God will answer; Joh 12:27, 28 Jesus said - Father, save me out of this hour. Nevertheless, this is why I have come to this hour.  Father, glorify YOUR NAME.” Then a voice came out of heaven: “I have glorified it and will glorify it again.” Here God the Father clearly make the point that HE has a "Name" which His reply to Jesus make clear. Then many times in the Bible we have the phrase "In the NAME of The LORD" & the like, thus once again showing the "LORD" is NOT God's "name" as The LORD HAS a "NAME"! – user26950 Nov 4 '18 at 14:40
  • [] Added We also have Jesus words at Matthew 28:19; reffering to the OT texts Jesus taught from- ".Go, therefore, and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the NAME OF of the Father ["Jehovah" form the OT] and of the Son ["Jesus" via the Angel] and of the holy spirit [on name], – user26950 Nov 4 '18 at 14:44
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The name which Jesus manifested - that is to say, manifested as that not yet manifested before His advent - cannot be those names that were known already in the Old Testament - Yahve, Adonai, El etc. - but this name newly and uniquely manifested is the "Father".

Jesus uniquely and unprecedentedly in history invested humans with authority to become God's children (John 1:12), and thus to have God as Father. More precisely, He is the unique and only Revelator of God whom nobody has seen (John 1:18), and whom nobody can either access without Him (John 14:16) or know without Him (Matthew 11:27); while He Himself knows the Father as He is known by the Latter (John 1:15), thus is equal to Him; in virtue of this equality, He is the only natural and co-eternal Son of the Father, the Latter's co-Creator of the universe. And this natural Son authorises also humans to participate in His and the Father's eternal the divine life, by making them His brothers and sisters by adoption (John 20:17).

Thus, the new name of God, the "Father", denotes a new ontological condition of humanity with reference to its creator God, a new and unprecedented degree of intimacy of humanity with God, for by now, through authorisation of the Son, humans also get access to divine life by becoming partakers of it to the fullest possible way; exactly this intimate partaking of divine life is called sonship, and exactly by virtue of this God is revealed as the "Father" of such "sons" and "daughters".

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BDAG provides several ways that the noun "name" (Gr: "onoma") is used Greek depending on its associated words. When "name" is used of God in combination with a verb (eg, here: "I revealed your name" John 17:6) BDAG comments: "Although in the preceding examples the name is often practically inseparable from the being that bears it, this is perhaps even more true of the following cases in which the name appears almost as the representation of the Godhead, as a tangible manifestation of the divine nature" Rev 11:18, John 17:6, 26, 1 John 3:23, Rev 2:13, Acts 9:15.

Thus, I understand the name in John 17:6 & 26 to mean that Jesus, by His life, teaching and ministry etc, has revealed the Father's divine nature, namely His character of loving-kindness and the way He deals with us as shown by Jesus. Jesus declared, "Whoever has seen me has seen the Father" - see John 14:8-14.

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  • The son of God has a divine nature and a name, Jesus. The Father has a divine nature so then he should have a name as the altimate divine person as his son has a name. Matthew 6:9 “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified (hallowed)." – user26950 Oct 21 '18 at 23:07
  • True - but what is your point? – user25930 Oct 21 '18 at 23:12
  • What's the name as in my question? Another example the the phrase "in the name of the LORD" and like phrases. "LORD" cannot be God's name as the phrase says 'the "LORD" has a name? – user26950 Oct 22 '18 at 0:02
  • As explained above, "name" means the character and nature of the Father, not so much a title because none is used here. – user25930 Oct 22 '18 at 3:48
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    You clearly refuse to understand the teaching of the Trinity because THAT is NOT what the trinity doctrine teaches. Do not critique a straw man. – user25930 Nov 5 '18 at 20:41
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The immensity of God cannot be reduced to just one word [name]. Or even two words [names]. When you are dealing with the superlative degree of Being that is God, words fail us, yet words have been given to us, in the Bible, to describe aspects of God by means of His various names.

Here's a point that really answers this issue. It’s in Judges chapter 13. Manoah and his wife had a supernatural encounter with One who told them that the barren wife would conceive a son. They invited Him to share a meal with them but he replied, "Even though you detain me, I will not eat any of your food. But if you prepare a burnt offering, offer it to the Lord."

Then Manoah enquired, "What is your name, so that we may honour you when your word comes true?"

Now, this possibly means they would give their future son this One's name. But in those days, knowing a person's name was considered to be a privilege that gave you some authority regarding that person. Names were not broadcast willy-nilly, as on Facebook, with strangers being on first-name terms.

The answer Manoah got is intriguing. "Why do you ask my name? It is beyond understanding." Note that the ancient Hebrew for 'beyond understanding' can be translated as 'Wonderful'. And some of the names / titles for the future Messiah were stated in the OT to be "Wonderful, the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father" etc (Isaiah 9:6). When Manoah then sacrificed a young goat on an altar, this One ascended heavenwards in the flame that blazed up. Every name attached to God is significant but we will never grasp the enormity of our God this side of glory. The question we need to concentrate on is not how we pronounce in English ancient words for the One Being of God, but whether we can call this Glorious One, "Abba, Father".

So with John 17: 6 & 27 - Jesus used name [singular] to sum up the nature and being of God. Who God is, what he stands for, and the honour of his glorious name.

http://www.prageruniversity.com/Religion-Philosophy/Do-Not-Misuse-Gods-Name.html#.VIih7ovqD3E

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  • Manoah spoke to an "angel" (Jug. 13:18) the angel refused to give his name so as not to ditract from Jehovah. A lot in a "Name:" Ex 3:14-15 So God said to Moses: “I Will Become What I Choose to Become.” And he added: “This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘I Will Become has sent me to you.’” Then God said once more to Moses:“This is what you are to say to the Israelites, ‘Jehovah the God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.’ This is my name forever, and this is how I am to be remembered from generation to generation."NWT – user26950 Nov 6 '18 at 1:32
  • Yes, I appreciate that, ethos. I'm hoping the episode in Judges chapter 13 might open up your understanding to how any heavenly name is not about pronouncing syllables in human language, but of grasping the enormity of who it belongs to. Humans like to know names, to use them, but God's names are so significant that no one single word can encapsulate all that God is. Yet Jesus encapsulates this more than any words can, being "the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of his Being" Hebrews 1:1-4, having "the name that is above every name" Philippians 2:9. – Anne Nov 6 '18 at 15:19
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    Ture; but then why did God put his name (JHVH) in The Scriptures about 7,000 times, more than any other name in the Bible; if he did not want it 1) to stand out, 2) be used? Ezekiel 38:23 "And I will certainly magnify myself and sanctify myself and make myself known before the eyes of many nations; and they WILL HAVE TO KNOW that I am Jehovah.’" – user26950 Nov 6 '18 at 20:56
  • You are now asking another question that looks suspiciously as though you have asked the first question in order to promote your own personal understanding of the matter. It seems as if you are out to tell readers that Jesus wanted to make known YHWH (in those verses you quote, even though Jesus nowhere spoke of YHWH.) If you are so sure, why did you ask us a question? I am not here to get into an argument with you. I answered your question but if you don't like it, you can ignore it. I will not be baited into an argument designed to let you promote your own answer, thanks all the same. – Anne Nov 7 '18 at 14:18
  • Its in the Bible see Psalm 83:18 & Ex. 6:3 KJV. Thus how is it MY idea when it is in Scripture? The New English Bible: The name Jehovah appears at Exodus 3:15; 6:3. See also in Genesis 22:14; Exodus 17:15; Judges 6:24; Ezekiel 48:35. If this and other translations use “Jehovah” in several places, why not be consistent in using it at every place where the Tetragrammaton appears in the Hebrew text? – user26950 Nov 7 '18 at 15:34
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If Jesus were trying to make the name/title "YHVH" be "manifest" and "declared" to his disciples then he failed miserably since he is never recorded mentioning it so it isn't in any of his recorded sayings.

Perhaps what we are seeing today is the inverse of what happened here:

KJV Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

In other words, to the Jews he revealed himself and related to the Jews "by the name" or "I, after some time, chose to reveal myself to the Jews by the covenant name of YHVH". Maybe?

The more "critical" approach to the problem of the abandonment of the name is simply that:

  • out of concern of taking God's name in vain the Jews had an aversion to the use of the name except during worship
  • a large concentration of Jews in Alexandria, Egypt in North Africa became hellenized and dependent on a Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures (the LXX) which opted to translate the Tetragrammaton as "hO KURIOS"
  • the writers of the NT were hellenized Jews so they used hO KURIOS as well

Perhaps it is both:

  • God oversaw the disuse of the name because it fit his plan
  • God intended to not "reveal" himself to the Body of Christ by the name he used for Israel and used the disuse to that end

So what name/title did Jesus declare? Well, "Our Father who is in the sky" or just "Our Father" or "Father", etc. Not "Elohim" or "El" or "YHVH" though. It appears the "name" he declared and made manifest ("seen") was "the Father of Israel":

KJV Exodus 4:22 And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son, even my firstborn:

Paul, coming after Jesus and sent to the gentiles often used variations of "the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ".

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  • Good thoughts the Bible goes on to say: DNKJB Ex. 3:15 And God said moreover unto Moses,Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, JEHOVAH the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob hath sent me unto you: THIS IS MY NAME FOR EVER, and this is my memorial unto ALL GENERATIONS. - KJV Psalm 83:16-18 Fill their faces with shame; that they may seek THY NAME, O LORD. Let them be confounded and troubled for ever yea, let them be put to shame, and perish:That [men] may know that THOU WHOSE NAME alone [is] JEHOVAH, [art] the most high over all the earth. – user26950 Nov 7 '18 at 15:22
  • Scientists tell us that if you shot an arrow from where ever you are on earth and it escaped earth's gravity it would travel on forever and never hit anything. The chance that your arrow would hit an object in space is much less unlikely than you winning the lottery. Space is so huge. So your arrow would travel on forever. As you probably already know, the Hebrew "forever" is not necessarily "forever" as in English. "OLAM", like "AIWN" has the sense of that arrow flying until it hits something, like the END of the age. "ALL generations" refers to all generation of the Jews, now cut off. – Ruminator Nov 7 '18 at 15:35
  • So why say "for ever."? Micah 4:5 For all the peoples will walk, each in the name of its god, But we will walk in the name of Jehovah (Heb. "JHVH") our God FPREVER AND EVER.!!! See Matthew 6:9; What did Jesue say as a pratcing JEW? [] Added Ezekiel 36:23 ‘I will certainly sanctify MY GREAT NAME, which was profaned among the nations [NON JEWS], which you profaned among them; and the nations [NON JEWS] WILL HAVE TO KNOW that I am Jehovah (Heb. "JHVH"),’ declares the Sovereign Lord Jehovah (Heb. "JHVH") , ‘when I am sanctified among you before their eyes. Into the future – user26950 Nov 7 '18 at 15:48
  • The Jews forfeited their distinction as God's "People" when they refused their king and killed his prophets. And, if I'm correct, then God's covenant name disappeared into history as well, ultimately by God's sovereign design. – Ruminator Nov 7 '18 at 16:01
  • “Paul, coming after Jesus and sent to the gentiles often used variations of the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” This is an argument Marcion made. He believed the God of the OT was evil, and that Jesus- through his “apostle” Paul, came to reveal the “real god”... Matthew 24:23-25. How did Yeshua fail when you, ethos, and I know God’s real name? We might disagree how to pronounce or spell his name- but we all know his name is YHVH... YeHoVaH or YaHVeH. – Cannabijoy Nov 7 '18 at 16:01
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I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word. (John 17:6) [KJV]

And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them. (John 17:27)

These are two different claims. In 17:6, Jesus states He manifested the name. Manifested is Ἐφανέρωσά which Thayers says here means to make known by teaching. In 17:27 He states He declared (ἐγνώρισα) the name unto them and will declare (γνωρίσω) it. Declare is to make known.

Certainly there are grounds to debate what "the Name" is and in what language Jesus spoke or may have spoken, and how did Jesus manifest the Father's Name. Yet if one accepts the text as written, then the point of emphasis becomes what Jesus claims He will do. That is, He is going to do something which He has already done. In terms of the Name, the prayer closes such to alert the reader to consider what is about to happen.

After praying Jesus and His disciples cross the Kidron brook and enter the garden where He is arrested. When He is confronted, John (chapter 18) records what Jesus said:

4 Jesus therefore, knowing all things that should come upon him, went forth, and said unto them, Whom seek ye? 5 They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he. And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. 6 As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he, they went backward, and fell to the ground.

7 Then asked he them again, Whom seek ye? And they said, Jesus of Nazareth. 8 Jesus answered, I have told you that I am he: if therefore ye seek me, let these go their way: 9 That the saying might be fulfilled, which he spake, Of them which thou gavest me have I lost none.

Twice Jesus said ἐγώ εἰμί, literally, "I am" yet translated as "I am he." John records Jesus had spoken these words earlier: to the woman at the well (4:26); to those in the Temple Treasury (8:24, 28, 58); to the disciples at the Last Supper (13:19).

Apparently, from John's perspective, the name of the Father is ἐγώ εἰμί (I am) as is found in the Greek translation of the Old Testament:

13 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? 14 And God said unto Moses, I Am That I Am: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I Am hath sent me unto you. (Exodus 3)

και ειπεν ο θεος προς μωυσην εγω ειμι ο ων και ειπεν ουτως ερεις τοις υιοις ισραηλ ο ων απεσταλκεν με προς υμας

The expression εγω ειμι ο ων can be parsed as Father, εγω ειμι, and Son, ο ων. So the Name given to Moses is Father and Son, εγω ειμι ο ων. Then Moses was sent by the Son ο ων. John, on the other hand, records Jesus was sent by the Father, εγω ειμι.

This echoes the conclusion of the Prologue:

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο

No one has ever seen God; the only God, THE ONE WHO IS, has himself led out into the bosom of the Father.1

Note:
1. Robert G. Hall, "The Reader as Apocalyptist", John's Gospel and Intimations of the Apocalyptic, Eds. Catrin H. Williams and Christopher Rowland, Bloomsbury Publishing, 2103, p. 268

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  • +1 excellent answer. For the the connexion between εγο ειμι and ο ων in the gospel of John. – Radz Matthew C. Brown Jul 20 at 16:32
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"The Lord our God is one" this is a deep subject that is not near as important to understand ...as it is " To keep our lamps full of oil. I would add to the discussion this though.... The 2 titles (Father Son) and the "Holy Spirit" Who is in fact the presence, guidance, are the 2 rolled into 1 as the Spirit of God "WE will make our home in you" is the answer to the name ,within the name of Jesus.... the name JESUS "Yeshua" ( Yhwh saves) with Jesus name both prophesied in the old testament and revealed in Mary's revelation "Emanuel" (God with us) ……..indicates God is with us, to save us?. The 3 in one is for men to dispute and to discuss to satisfy their "OWN" satisfaction, not Gods. The more important question other than understanding, the When where what and who is God and His name, can take us away from the more important question...… What are we doing with the talents that God has given us to perform, the 3 duties when "Led by His Spirit" …." Preach the gospel" "Make disciples" " Teach them the things that He has taught us (Learn from me). These are what God will use each of us for, to both help us and those who receive. Questions about matters that are Gods, are for Greek philosophers, we could argue the point from know till He returns and still not be satisfied.

Paul emphasis on knowing Christ, through "Offering ourselves as living sacrifices" was at the very centre of what he both practised and taught , and would be disappointed in how the Religious systems of today think? In His mind, he had know doubt as to who and what Jesus was "The fullness of the Godhead bodily". He understood Jesus own words...……. "I never knew you" Blessing to all.

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  • Hello mark, welcome to BHSE, glad to have you with us. If you haven't already, please make sure to take our tour, to see how we are a little different from other sites you may know. Thanks! (hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/tour) – sara Oct 6 '19 at 7:09
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Baptize in The Name of The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit,

Yehoshua/Yeshua The Apostles understood the Name of which represented the triune God and why they baptized in water by the Name Yehoshua/Yeshua/Iesous which means Savior/Salvation

There is no Savior but YHVH Isaiah 43:11

Even though Yehoshua/Yeshua is a popular name amongst the Hebrew people This Name is what was made known to us by the Name of the Son in representing the Father, Father being in Him and Him in the Father.

Acts 4:12 And there is salvation in no other, for there is not another name under heaven having been given among men, by which it behooves us to be saved."

So the 1 Name given to the Son is the Name of the Father but also the Spirit as YHVH alone is our salvation.

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  • The Trinity are all God, one substance. When you say "Son given the Name of the Father" do you have a verse in mind? "I and the Father are one" speaks of separate names and personalities but in total agreement, I suggest. – C. Stroud Feb 6 at 13:23
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When The Most High spoke to Moses in the Burning Bush, He said his name is I AM THAT I AM which in old Hebrew translates AHAYA ASHER AHAYA

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The name YHWH. The divine name of his Father and his God is YHWH. There is no other God in the scriptures that is named YHWH. The English bible is translated from Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic languages. If one would say that YHWH does not appear in the New Testament, consider Luke 4:17-21 of the Aramaic Bible in Plain English says, And the scroll of Isaiah the Prophet was given to him and Yeshua opened the scroll and he found the place where it is written “The Spirit of THE LORD JEHOVAH is upon me, and because of this he has anointed me to preach The Good News to the poor; he has sent me to heal broken hearts and to proclaim liberty to captives, vision to the blind, and to restore the crushed with forgiveness,” “And to proclaim the acceptable era of THE LORD JEHOVAH" And he rolled up the scroll and he gave it to the minister and he went and sat down, but all who were in the synagogue fixed their eyes upon him.

Now let us look at verse he quoted from Isaiah, Isaiah 61:1 of the Young's Literal Translation Bible says, The Spirit of the Lord Jehovah is on me, Because Jehovah did anoint me To proclaim tidings to the humble, He sent me to bind the broken of heart, To proclaim to captives liberty, And to bound ones an opening of bands.According to this verses, who did YHWH sent? His son, Jesus Christ, John 17:3. This is why Jesus instructed us to pray "hallowed be thy name". Matthew 6:9.

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Re : The question was asked quote: " In John 17:6 what name to make manifest and declare to his disciples." Answer : " Jesus." The name to be made manifest and declared is "Jesus". References: MATTHEW chapter 1 verse 21 says quote " And she shall bring forth a son ,and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins". JOHN chapter 20 verse 31 says quote "But these are written, that he might believe that Jesus is the Christ ,the Son of God ; and that believing ye might have life though his name " "It ain't 'rocket science". However to Nicodemus it was and in today's world it still is for many people.Sadly. Read JOHN chapter 3 ,verses 1 to 21. Here the lights were on but nobody was home. However we do know from scripture that he did became a follower. User 32276 Dennis

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Umm. Anyone ever thought to just look up the Ancient Hebrew Pictographs associated with the letters YHVH (Yod Hey Vav Hey)? It literally translates to "Behold the Hand Behold the Nail." Look it up.

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  • An etymological sight from "pictographic" is "not" a dependable/reliable principle for the proper Biblical exegesis. – Sam Jul 20 at 16:15
  • Welcome to BH. Please see the Tour and the Help as to the purpose and the functioning of the site. This is not an hermeneutical answer as it does not cite a reference and does not contain a reasoned argument. – Nigel J Jul 20 at 18:28

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