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1 Corinthians 10:16:

KJV The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ?

MGNT τὸ ποτήριον τῆς εὐλογίας ὃ εὐλογοῦμεν οὐχὶ κοινωνία ἐστὶν τοῦ αἵματος τοῦ Χριστοῦ τὸν ἄρτον ὃν κλῶμεν οὐχὶ κοινωνία τοῦ σώματος τοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐστιν

Is the reference to "the cup of blessing" referring to the third cup of the seder, which speaks of the redemption of the Jews from Egypt?

There is a tradition that the [son of] David would pronounce the blessing over the wine of the great eschatological feast in the kingdom of God:

...Death did not put an end to David's greatness and splendor, for he was also among the elect in paradise (Jellinek, "B. H." v. 168; vi. 25, 26), and on the Day of Judgment he will pronounce the blessing over the wine during the great feast (Pes. 119b; compare Cup of Benediction)...

But Jesus is still in negotiations about his drinking the cup (though he actually knows it will not pass unless he drinks it, so he is really "learning [the cost of] obedience"):

NIV Luke 22:

39Jesus went out as usual to the Mount of Olives, and his disciples followed him. 40On reaching the place, he said to them, “Pray that you will not fall into temptation.” 41He withdrew about a stone’s throw beyond them, knelt down and prayed, 42“Father, if you are willing, take this cup from me; yet not my will, but yours be done.” 43An angel from heaven appeared to him and strengthened him. 44And being in anguish, he prayed more earnestly, and his sweat was like drops of blood falling to the ground.

So is he saying that he won't drink the cup of blessing until after his ordeal?

I notice it is an angel who blesses those who attend the wedding feast, not the messiah.

Now, Luke and John seem to disagree on the timing of the killing of the Passover lamb but for Luke, obviously the meal was a Passover meal:

NIV Luke 22:

7Then came the day of Unleavened Bread on which the Passover lamb had to be sacrificed. 8Jesus sent Peter and John, saying, “Go and make preparations for us to eat the Passover.”

9“Where do you want us to prepare for it?” they asked.

10He replied, “As you enter the city, a man carrying a jar of water will meet you. Follow him to the house that he enters, 11and say to the owner of the house, ‘The Teacher asks: Where is the guest room, where I may eat the Passover with my disciples?’ 12He will show you a large room upstairs, all furnished. Make preparations there.”

13They left and found things just as Jesus had told them. So they prepared the Passover.

14When the hour came, Jesus and his apostles reclined at the table. 15And he said to them, “I have eagerly desired to eat this Passover with you before I suffer. 16For I tell you, I will not eat it again until it finds fulfillment in the kingdom of God.”

17After taking the cup, he gave thanks and said, “Take this and divide it among you. 18For I tell you I will not drink again from the fruit of the vine until the kingdom of God comes.”

19And he took bread, gave thanks and broke it, and gave it to them, saying, “This is my body given for you; do this in remembrance of me.”

20In the same way, after the supper he took the cup, saying, “This cup is the new covenant in my blood, which is poured out for you. a 21But the hand of him who is going to betray me is with mine on the table. 22The Son of Man will go as it has been decreed. But woe to that man who betrays him!” 23They began to question among themselves which of them it might be who would do this.

So is it reasonable that "the cup of blessing" is part of the seder and not some new tradition that he started?

  • 2
    Your question conflates Wedding Feast (which is clearly Heaven) (and at that, a passive statement about blessedness vs. blessing vs. wine), the Passover meal (Jewish people only), the Eucharist (Jew and Gentile). Also, didn't you say before that you thought chapter 10 was some sort of Catholic edition or something along those lines, and that it's not original/Paul's? " and not some new tradition that he started" glibly ignores that we know it wasn't the Passover. The Eucharist has never been identical to the Passover except in that Christ is the Paschal Lamb of the New Testament equivalent. – Sola Gratia Oct 17 '18 at 13:33
  • I consider chapter 10 clearly original. I expressed some entertainment of the idea that parts of chapter 14 and 16 might not be original with 16 possibly containing some Catholic contamination. How do we know it was not the Passover??? I mean, John wouldn't say so but the synoptics? Luke? Clear as a bell in Luke 22:7ff, as I quoted. I mentioned the "great feast" which is NOT blessed directly by the Messiah in Revelation to kind of rule that out as the fulfillment. – Ruminator Oct 17 '18 at 13:45
  • The source you provide says: "Speaking generally, the cup of benediction is drunk only on Sabbaths or at festivals and other joyous occasions." If there is a correspondence with the cup, can it be limited to just the Seder? OTOH a regular Sabbath or joyous occasion sounds like Christian Communion. – Revelation Lad Oct 17 '18 at 13:52
  • How can you deny that Luke is describing a seder?: NIV Luke 22: 7Then came the day of Unleavened Bread on which the Passover lamb had to be sacrificed. 8Jesus sent Peter and John, saying, “Go and make preparations for us to eat the Passover.” ...11and say to the owner of the house, ‘The Teacher asks: Where is the guest room, where I may eat the Passover with my disciples?’ 12He will show you a large room upstairs, all furnished. Make preparations there.” 13They left and found things just as Jesus had told them. So they prepared the Passover. – Ruminator Oct 17 '18 at 13:56
  • 1
    "It seems interpreting Paul with no reference to the other scriptures is an impossible task." If 1 Cor is "scripture" why are you lording over it as if you can decide what are 'Catholic additions' with zero evidence but an apparent aversion to the doctrine itself? Again, in Revelation, no one blesses anything, and a Feast is not automatically a Passover meal—especially when it says "Wedding Feast." Makarios used in Revelation just means blessed in the 'happy; blessed' sense. Not the 'holy' or 'ritual' kind of benediction or blessing of the bread and the cup: Paul uses eulogeo: 'to bless.' – Sola Gratia Oct 17 '18 at 21:45

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