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Isaiah 44:6 (KJV)

6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

The word LORD in both cases in this verse is the tetragrammaton. To whom specifically is the second usage referring, ie "his redeemer"?

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  • The Lord, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the Lord of Hosts. - All four titles refer to one and the same subject. – Lucian Oct 5 '18 at 10:10
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I note that many versions (eg J P Green, NRSV, NASB, ESV, etc) agree with the KJV and have "king and his redeemer". However, some others (eg, NIV, Complete Jewish Bible, NAB) have "king and redeemer". Clearly, there is debate about the validity of the "his" upon which I will not comment here.

Let us assume that that the first version (as per KJV et al) is valid. The traditional answer is to assume this to be a reference to Jesus. Compare Isa 43:3, 11, 45 17, 21 with Matt 1:21, Acts 4:12, 2 Tim 1:10, Titus 2;13, 2 peter 1:1, 11, etc. That is, Jehovah/YHWH claims to be the one and only Redeemer and Saviour, and, the NT asserts that the only Saviour is Jesus. Luke 1:68, 24:21, Matt 20:28, Mark 10:45, 1 Tim 2:6, Heb 9:15, 1 Cor 6:20, 7:23, Gal 3:13, 4:5, Titus 2:14, 1 Peter 1:18.

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  • Great answer; spot on.YHWH + Redeemer = Jesus – alb Oct 4 '18 at 23:54
  • The 3rd person masculine singular suffix is in Hebrew וְגֹאֲל֖וֹ יְהוָ֣ה צְבָא֑וֹת. Thus, unless they use a different text than the MT, by omitting his they are leaving something out that is in the text. – Perry Webb Oct 7 '18 at 13:22

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