Was Paul trying to say he belonged to the Hebrews or that all the Hebrews belonged to him. Did he mean the phrase both ways when he used it in his expression? What is the right way to interpret Philippians 3:5?
Circumcised on the eighth day, of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew of Hebrews; as to the law, a Pharisee. (ESV)
The phrase is used by the Apostle Paul to state that he was the greatest example of someone who attempted to attain righteousness by trying to keep the law. Paul claims to be head and shoulders above his counterparts in the Jews religion.
In 1 Corinthians 15, he states he worked harder that anyone else in their religion.
1 Cor 15: 9-10 (KJV)
9 For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God. 10 But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me.
In the context of your referenced verse in Philippians 3, Paul states that if any man has any confidence to boast in the flesh (attempting to keep the law) he has the ability to boast more and then he adds his credentials. He ends by saying that as touching righteousness of the law he was blameless, ie, no one did more work to keep the law than he did.
Philippians 3: 3-6 (KJV)
3For we are the circumcision, which worship God in the spirit, and rejoice in Christ Jesus, and have no confidence in the flesh. 4 Though I might also have confidence in the flesh. If any other man thinketh that he hath whereof he might trust in the flesh, I more: 5 Circumcised the eighth day, of the stock of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, an Hebrew of the Hebrews; as touching the law, a Pharisee; 6 Concerning zeal, persecuting the church; touching the righteousness which is in the law, blameless.
In the above passage, Paul states that his credentials in keeping the law are beyond most because not only did he keep the law flawlessly, he also persecuted the church showing his intense passion and zeal for the Jews religion.
In short, Paul is stating to be the greatest example of how to keep the law but then says in verse 9, that he counts it all dung as compared to the sufficiency of the sacrifice of Christ.
Philippians 3: 7-9 (KJV)
7 But what things were gain to me, those I counted loss for Christ. 8 Yea doubtless, and I count all things but loss for the excellency of the knowledge of Christ Jesus my Lord: for whom I have suffered the loss of all things, and do count them but dung, that I may win Christ, 9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
To answer this question one must answer what does Ἑβραῖος ἐξ Ἑβραίων mean? Here are examples of how translations have translated it:
a Hebrew of Hebrews (NAS, ESV, NIV, ASV, NET, ISV, Darby, YLT)
a(n) Hebrew of the Hebrews (KJV, NKJV, D-R)
a Hebrew born of Hebrews (HCSB, NRSV)
a Hebrew born from Hebrews (LEB)
a Hebrew of Hebrew parentage (NAB)
I am a Hebrew, and my parents were Hebrews (NCB)
hebreo de hebreos (RVA, LBLA)
עִבְרִי מִן הָעִבְרִים (HNT-Bible Society of Israel)
an Ebrue borne of the Ebrues (Tyndale 1536)
a Hebrew-speaker, with Hebrew-speaking parents (CJB )
a real Hebrew if there ever was one! (NLT)
I am a true Hebrew (CEV)
I’m a pure-blooded Hebrew (GW)
a Hebrew [and the son] of Hebrews (AMP)
a pure-blooded Hebrew (GNB)
If the ἐξ preposition weren’t present this would be the meaning. It’s interesting how many translations translate “Hebrew of Hebrews” that seems to imply this interpretation.
While Paul wrote in Greek, Hebrew of Hebrews is a Hebrew way of expressing the superlative (note Holy of Holies):
(i) The absolute superlative, which manifests the outstanding feature, condition or state of something or someone can be expressed by: a. A singular noun in the status constructus preceding the indefinite plural form of the same word.
הֲבֵל הֲבָלִים vanity of vanities = utmost vanities (Eccl. 1:2)
Van der Merwe, C., Naudé, J., Kroeze, J., Van der Merwe, C., Naudé, J., & Kroeze, J. (1999). A Biblical Hebrew Reference Grammar (electronic ed., p. 236). Sheffield: Sheffield Academic Press.
If the superlative were the case, Jewish Christians would understand it to mean Paul was the most Hebrew that one could be, and he defends this in the verses that follow.
However, the question is what does ἐξ mean? The simplest meaning is
89.142 ἐκ; ἀπό: markers of the substance of which something consists or out of which it is made—‘of, consisting of, out of, made of.’
Louw, J. P., & Nida, E. A. (1996). Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament: based on semantic domains (electronic ed. of the 2nd edition., Vol. 1, p. 795). New York: United Bible Societies.
However, the translation “Hebrew of Hebrews” is very unclear as shown previously, especially to a Hebrew. Note the Hebrew translation translates ἐκ/ ἐξ as מִן (from) and the Complete Jewish Bible translates it, “a Hebrew-speaker, with Hebrew-speaking parents.”
This is also how Robertson explains the phrase:
A Hebrew of the Hebrews (Ἐβραιος ἐξ Ἐβραιων [Ebraios ex Ebraiōn]). Of Hebrew parents who retained the characteristic qualities in language and custom as distinct from the Hellenistic Jews (Acts 6:1)
Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Php 3:5). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press.
Note that when the translations express the meaning using more than “Hebrew of Hebrews,” they express it as meaning a Hebrew from Hebrew parents.
The context of the passage is an expression of Paul's assertion of his orthodox Jewish roots in the face of "evil workers" who taught that circumcision was a requirement for all male followers of Jesus, specifically gentiles. Paul makes the point here that in terms of qualifications for orthodoxy and adherence to Torah, he is an expert.
The literal Greek in verse 3:5 can be rendered, "a Hebrew from out of Hebrews," which serves as an intensifier---that he was exemplary as far as Judaic knowledge and observance was concerned.
Dieter
The TNT seem to catch the flavor of what Paul was saying as it reads
"... The Hebrew son of Hebrew parents."
He seems to be highliting his past pedgree and background to emphasize that being a sefollower of Christ is far greater to him that his rich Hebrew origins for he says in ver 7:-
“Yet all such advantages* I have reckonede as a loss because of Christ"
*His Jewish upbringing etc..
In fact he calls it "worthless rubbish" in verse 8.
This is a classic Hebrew expression of the superlative. Perhaps the strongest way to denote the superlative in Hebrew (Hebrew has no way of denoting the superlative by the form of a single word: as the English "est" as in "fastest") is to say "[noun] of [nouns]."
A key example is "the holy of holies," i.e. the Most Holy [Place] (most holy and cenral part of the Temple). Or "Song of Songs." Or even "King of Kings" (the most exalted King/if anyone is a King, it's this guy). We've even somewhat imported this form of superlative into English. E.g. "the Bible is the book of [all] books."
"Hebrew of Hebrews" therefore means nothing other than "the most dedicated of my kind as regards what it means to be a true Jewish person." It has nothing to do with his parents being Hebrews.
Mary's being "blessed among women [who are blessed women]" is actually a form of superlative also, and synonymous with "blessed above all women."
