NOTE 1: I see people showing me their resoning that homosexuality deserves condemnation, I know that and fully endorse, the question is about meaning of these verses, not judgement of homosexuals, as the answer for this is widely known.

Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural sexual relations for unnatural ones. In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed shameful acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their error.

In context Paul is writing about going away from God and giving honor to idols. People interpret this passage as condemnation of homosexuality. And it does that for men, it's clearly written. But how worshiping gods can lead to homosexuality? I believe it must mean religious prostitution, then it makes perfect sense.

My question: Can original greek text be interpreted that women exchaged natural sexual relations (which is sex within marriage) to unnatural (prostitution regardless of gender)? And that men, having abandoned natural relations with women (marriage) were inflamed with lust for one another (which also means prostitution, as men were giving their body to whoever wanted)?

NOTE 2: I asked this question mainly because we have direct condemnation of homosexual men in both OT and NT, yet OT lacks any mention of lesbianism and the passages in Leviticus etc. clearly adress men only. I began to think what if lesbianism is allowable in polygynous marriage and thus not condemned, because here, Paul, when writing about shameful acts speaks of men, and men only.

Folks, again, this question is not about homosexuality, but meaning of the verses. Look at it from a perspective free from any particular views, only that way Scripture should be interpreted.



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