Can John 14:28 and John 14:9 be reconciled by saying Jesus had all three parts of the Trinity in him?

Question

I have been having a bit trouble trying to understand John 14:28 and John 14:9 because Jesus says in the 1st verse I mentioned "If you have seen me you have seen the father." and in the other "The Father is greater than I."

Jesus answered: "Don’t you know me, Philip, even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father. How can you say, 'Show us the Father'? — John 14:9 (NIV)

You heard me say, 'I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for the Father is greater than I. — John 14:28 (NIV)

Could Jesus have meant this: Jesus is God so that makes him the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit all at once, and since he came down AS the son while being equal with the Father, maybe when he said "The Father is greater then I." was just only The Son (The 2nd person of the Trinity) saying that the Father is greater than him only in roles. Would this interpretation be in harmony with the rest of Scripture?

John 10:30, which you did not list, follows a similar pattern of thought to that of Genesis 2:24; now, would you say, for instance, that either Adam or Eve have two souls (their own, and that of their spouse) living inside their respective bodies ? :-) — Lucian, Jun 18, 2020 at 14:10

Pascal's Wager · Accepted Answer · 2018-08-28 05:18:18Z

The Athanasian Creed (not to mention the Ecumenical Councils and early Church fathers) teaches us that the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are three distinct Persons, each of which is God. It also teaches us that the Son (who is only one Person) has two natures, a human nature and a divine nature.

The Creed professes the Son as "Equal to the Father, as touching his Godhead; and inferior to the Father as touching his Manhood." Thus, in John 14:28, it seems that the Son is referring to His human nature, which is inferior to the Father's divine nature. Moreover, the context of John 14:28 supports the idea that Christ's frail humanity is being referred to when Christ says "the Father is greater than I," because in the very same verse He alludes to His death, saying "be glad that I am going to the Father." And the next day, He suffered and died on the cross.

John 14:9 is a little harder to reconcile. At first glance, one is tempted to fall into the modalist heresy, which teaches that the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit are all the same Person and are not distinct. Of course, however, John 14:28 teaches that the Son is distinct from the Father, since otherwise He would be lying to say "the Father is greater than I." Thus, the modalist theory falls apart.

Notice that Jesus does not say, "I am the Father." Instead He says "Anyone who has seen me has seen the Father." To see the Son's divine nature is to see the Son. To see the Father's divine nature is to see the Father. The Athanasian Creed teaches us that the Father and the Son share the same divine nature/essence. Thus, anyone who has seen the Son (in His divine nature) has seen the Father.

But, how can anyone see the divine nature if it's invisible? Keep in mind that to "see" doesn't always have to mean with the eyes, but sometimes one can also "see" with the heart. To "see" can also mean to understand (Upon discovering a new theorem, the mathematician exclaimed, "I see! It makes sense!") Christ may have meant, "Whoever understands me understands the Father."

Excellent contribution. Many thanks +1.
– user25930
Sep 12, 2018 at 22:31 — user25930, Sep 12, 2018 at 22:31

Biblepreacher · Accepted Answer · 2019-05-23 02:57:10Z

In John 14:9 Jesus is NOT saying, "You see me I am God the Father." Jesus is telling us when we put his whole speech in context is, " You understand me the Son of God you understand God my Father as well." The word of God is spiritual, mankind are looking at the carnal in order to interpret the spiritual. It doesn't work like that.

Basic English 101."

I understand what you mean = I have seen what you mean

I have seen it all = I understand it all

In the beginning of John 14 Jesus told us a key verse.

John 14: 1 ] Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me. [ 2 ] In my Father's house are many mansions: if it were not so, I would have told you. I go to prepare a place for you. [ 3 ] And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you unto myself; that where I am, there ye may be also. [ 4 ] And whither I go ye know, and the way ye know.

Jesus is telling us about his works they show who God his Father is dwelling in his Son Jesus. Most Christians would not be great journalists as they only have a begging of a conversation and not the whole conversation in context. Most journalists I know get the whole conversation and not part of a conversation out of context.

John 14:9 ] Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father? [ 10 ] Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. [ 11 ] Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. [ 12 ] Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me, the works that I do shall he do also; and greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father. [ 13 ] And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son.