My goal here is not to answer or even attempt to answer those interpretations that are based on hermeneutics such as amillennialism or other eclectic systems of eschatology. It is to affirm a consistently literal hermeneutic.
The immediate context of Dan. 12:11-12 is Daniel 12:9-13, which comes after Daniel's question in Dan. 12:8.This places the larger context as beginning in Dan. 12:1. This helps a great deal because it gives a great deal of information about the time period being referred to in Dan. 12:11-12.
1) For Daniel there would be a future period that is described as unique in its ferocity (Dan. 12:1). "There shall be a time of trouble, such as never was since there was a nation."
2) That time period with be marked by the deliverance of Daniel's people Israel ("thy people" mentioned twice in Dan. 12:1).
3) Following the time of trouble there will be partial resurrection and a judgment that will follow for those who have been resurrected. The Hebrew term
rab (rendered here as "many") serves to limit the number of those who will be resurrected, as there are terms such as kōl that expresses the concept of totality, meaning all or everyone had it been used in the context of Dan. 12:2. The "thy people" people of verse also limits this resurrection to the people of Israel. Incidentally this is a strong argument, along with Isaiah 26 and 1 Thess. 4:13-17 against the idea of a single general resurrection of both the saved and the lost.
4) Michael the archangel limits these events to the "time of the end." This would prohibit this from having already taken place (from our perspective) when Antiochus Epiphanes desecrated the temple in 167 BC or in 70 AD at the hands of the Romans.
5) Daniel 12:5-13 is linked to Dan. 12:1-4 by the question made by one of the two men Daniel saw in Dan. 12:6, "How long shall it be to the end of these wonders?"
6) The man clothed in white linen describes the time of the end, which was earlier called the "time of trouble" as a time period that extends for "it shall be for a time, times, and an half." Some like myself suggest that this is defined elsewhere as 3 1/2 years. There are a number of passages that describe a period of 3 1/2 years:(Dan. 7:25; Dan. 12:7; Rev. 11:2; Rev. 12:6, 14; Rev. 13:5;).
7) In Dan. 12:11 there are two events that are actually distinct that are often put together in terms of time:(1) the daily sacrifice will be taken away, and (2) there will be an "abomination that maketh desolate." If there is a split in time between these two events this may partially explain the differences in days that are found in the various passages. Some of the dates are counted from the stopping of the sacrifices and others from the desecration of the temple.
8) One of the events in Dan. 12:11 is the "abomination that maketh desolate" which is commonly called the abomination of desolation. In Matthew 24:15, Jesus refers to a future event that he calls "abomination of desolation" and even adds that this was previously spoken by the prophet Daniel. So in 33 AD Jesus said that Daniel 12:11 would be fulfilled in the future. This prohibits this from having been fulfilled in 167 BC at the hands of Antiochus Epiphanes, unless one calls Jesus a liar or they deny that Jesus actually spoke those words. Since I hold to the doctrine of inspiration and inerrancy that is simply not possible. As already noted in Daniel 12:1-4 this period is followed by a resurrection so that prohibits assigning this to 70 AD as well (see the next point).
9) To assign Matthew 24:15 and with it Dan. 12:11 to 70 AD requires a couple of problems. The events described in the larger context of Matthew 24:4-14 must be spirtualized or ignored. There would be a time when a great number of wars and rumors of wars are taking place. The context of the Jewish rebellion doesn't fit this description. These wars will involve many nations, not the two nations of Rome and Israel that were present in the Jewish rebellion of 70 AD. A great deal of physical judgments will come in the form of "famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places," all suggesting a larger context than the narrow context surrounding Jerusalem in 70 AD.
10) The strongest argument for a yet still future time period is the description that follows Matthew 24:15 in Matthew 24:16-31. The abomination of desolation marks the beginning of a period not the end of it. The temple is destroyed at the end of the siege of Jerusalem and therefore it would have made no sense for Jesus to tell people to flee once they saw the abomination. In 70 AD it would have been too late, the Romans had by then already surrounded and destroyed the city. Jesus (Matt. 24:21) also calls this a period of unequal ferocity with the added phrase that it will occur once -- οὐδʼ οὐ μὴ γένηται (and never will be). While the events of 70 AD were terrible in their ferocity and suffering we have seen numerous times where the suffering has far exceeded the events of 70 AD. Once again, to make Dan. 12:11 as having taken place in 70 AD requires the idea that Jesus was wrong when he said there would never again be a time period as horrific as the "Great Tribulation."
11) The events of Matthew 24:4-14 actually have a great deal of similarity with the initial judgments of Rev. 6, where they are just summarized in Matthew and then given more details in the judgments of Revelation. This is one of the weaker arguments here, which is why it was added later.
Therefore, I would conclude that Daniel 12:1-13 is coincides with the time period known as the Great Tribulation and the events right after the tribulation. As there are events that will happen upon His second coming, such as the sheep and goat judgment this too may explain some of the differences in the number of days. There are quite a few other passages that could also be used to show the consistency in Scripture of describing a future time period. In the context of those passages are descriptions of other events that when taken literally can only be seen as a yet future event. As it is this is a very long answer so I will leave the rest for another day.