1 Cor. 10:9(KJV) says,
"μηδὲ ἐκπειράζωμεν τὸν Χριστόν καθὼς καί τινες αὐτῶν ἐπείρασαν καὶ ὑπὸ τῶν ὄφεων ἀπώλοντο (Neither should we test the Christ, as some of them tested, and by serpents perished-Interlinear translation)
In vs 4 he says,"
καὶ πάντες τὸ αὐτὸ πόμα πνευματικὸν ἔπιον ἔπινον γὰρ ἐκ πνευματικῆς ἀκολουθούσης πέτρας ἡ δὲ πέτρα ἦν ὁ Χριστός" (And all the same spiritual drank drink; they drank indeed of (the) spiritual following rock, the rock moreover was Christ-Interlinear translation)
Is Paul being anachronistic in imposing "Christ" as the meaning of "the Lord" in Num. 21:6, since "Christ(Christos-the Anointed One) had yet to be revealed in the text? Or is he merely making a correlation to the Corinthian audience to which they can draw a lesson from?